I have a question and I wish someone could help
well as it is known aphasia is classified as fluent and non-fluent ..
but if the damage is restricted to the posterior part in the left hemisphere do we consider it fluent ?
for me I think it is fluent and maybe it is Wernicke ..
I thought so because of the area :)
I want to make sure if I am right or not because I am confused !!
thanks in advance
Student or Learner