1. I can't have him smoking. 2. I can't get him smoking. Are the both same in meaning?
W wotcha22 Guest Sep 1, 2014 #1 1. I can't have him smoking. 2. I can't get him smoking. Are the both same in meaning?
R Rover_KE Moderator Staff member Joined Jun 20, 2010 Member Type Retired English Teacher Native Language British English Home Country England Current Location England Sep 1, 2014 #2 "Are [STRIKE]the[/STRIKE] both the same in meaning?" They are completely different. 1 means 'I can't allow him to smoke'. 2 means 'I can't persuade him to smoke'.
"Are [STRIKE]the[/STRIKE] both the same in meaning?" They are completely different. 1 means 'I can't allow him to smoke'. 2 means 'I can't persuade him to smoke'.
W wotcha22 Guest Sep 1, 2014 #3 Then, "I can't get him to smoke" is same as "I can't get him smoking in meaning?" :roll: Last edited by a moderator: Sep 1, 2014
R Rover_KE Moderator Staff member Joined Jun 20, 2010 Member Type Retired English Teacher Native Language British English Home Country England Current Location England Sep 1, 2014 #4 wotcha22 said: Then, "I can't get him to smoke" is the same as "I can't get him smoking" in meaning? Click to expand... Yes.
wotcha22 said: Then, "I can't get him to smoke" is the same as "I can't get him smoking" in meaning? Click to expand... Yes.
T Tdol No Longer With Us (RIP) Staff member Joined Nov 13, 2002 Native Language British English Home Country UK Current Location Japan Sep 2, 2014 #5 There's a slight difference to me- I would be more likely to use to smoke if I couldn't persuade him to smoke a single cigarette or take up the habit and smoking only if I failed to persuade him to take up the habit.
There's a slight difference to me- I would be more likely to use to smoke if I couldn't persuade him to smoke a single cigarette or take up the habit and smoking only if I failed to persuade him to take up the habit.
