[Grammar] I can't have/get him smoking.

[wotcha22]

1. I can't have him smoking.

2. I can't get him smoking.


Are the both same in meaning?

 

[Rover_KE]

"Are [STRIKE]the[/STRIKE] both the same in meaning?"

They are completely different.

1 means 'I can't allow him to smoke'.

2 means 'I can't persuade him to smoke'.

 

[wotcha22]

Then, "I can't get him to smoke" is same as "I can't get him smoking in meaning?"

:roll:

 

[Rover_KE]

Then, "I can't get him to smoke" is the same as "I can't get him smoking" in meaning?

Yes.

 

[Tdol]

There's a slight difference to me- I would be more likely to use to smoke if I couldn't persuade him to smoke a single cigarette or take up the habit and smoking only if I failed to persuade him to take up the habit.