would still be famous

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navi tasan

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Can one use:
1) They created works of art which would be famous three hundred years later.

instead of:
2) They created works of art which would still be famous three hundred years later.

The way I see it, '1' could mean that the works of art in question would become famous three hundred years later. It could also mean that the works or art would be famous three hundred years later, and this does not exclude the possibility that they would have stayed famous for three hundred years... However this interpretation seems a bit of a stretch to me. I think if one means '2', one has to use '2'.


Gratefully,
Navi.
 

Tarheel

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Who does "They" refer to in your sentences? (Some people have indeed created works of art which are quite well-known long after their time -- DaVinci and Van Gogh to name two.)
 

SoothingDave

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Yes, use #2.
 

Roman55

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Yes, although it implies that the works of art were famous from the very beginning, which is rarely the case.
 

Tarheel

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Perhaps:

They created works of art that would be well-known long after their time.

This sentence has no meaning unless "They" refers to specific people. The same goes for the other sentences.
 

navi tasan

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Thank you all very much,

Let us assume that 'they' refers to a people or a nation.

If I say:

A) The ancient Egyptians created works of art that would be famous hundreds of years later.

am I not implying that they became famous hundreds of years later and were not famous at the time they were created?

Gratefully,
Navi.
 

GoesStation

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