Topic about JUST,YET,ALREADY,NEVER

[Axa1970]

So are they normal in BrE?

a. They just broke his car (or) They have just broke his car.
b. I haven't finished my homework yet (or) I didn't finish my homework yet.
c. The Government has already made a lot of new rules (or) The Government already made a lot of new rules.
d. He has never eaten that fruit (or) He never ate that fruit.

I think in BrE, past tense is not used and it is only used in AmE , and present perfect tense Is used in BrE .

 

[emsr2d2]

[STRIKE]So[/STRIKE] Are [STRIKE]they[/STRIKE] the following sentences normal in BrE?

a. They just broke his car. :cross: I don't know what you mean by "broke his car".
(or)
They have just broke his car. :cross: 1) It would be "have just broken" and 2) I don't know what it would mean.

b. I haven't finished my homework yet. :tick:
(or)
I didn't finish my homework yet. Not natural in BrE.

c. The Government has already made a lot of new rules. :tick:
(or)
The Government already made a new rules. :cross: You have used a singular article with a plural noun.

d. He has never eaten that fruit. :tick:
(or)
He never ate that fruit. :tick: OK in the right context.

I think that in BrE the simple past tense is not used and it is only used in AmE, and that the present perfect tense is used in BrE.

See above.

Your final sentence is nonsense. Of course BrE uses the simple past! There are certain contexts in which BrE uses one tense and AmE uses another but both variants use all tenses.
Here's a couple of examples of situations in which we choose different tenses:

This is the first time I have eaten an avocado. (BrE)
This is the first time I ate an avocado. (AmE)

It was the first time I had ever eaten that dish. (BrE)
It was the first time I ever ate that dish. (AmE)

 

[GoesStation]

Here's a couple of examples of situations in which we choose different tenses:

This is the first time I have eaten an avocado. (BrE)
This is the first time I ate an avocado. (AmE)

It was the first time I had ever eaten that dish. (BrE)
It was the first time I ever ate that dish. (AmE)

I find the simple past unnatural in both those sentences, though perhaps some other American English speakers would use it.

 

[Axa1970]

See above.

Your final sentence is nonsense. Of course BrE uses the simple past! There are certain contexts in which BrE uses one tense and AmE uses another but both variants use all tenses.
Here's a couple of examples of situations in which we choose different tenses:

This is the first time I have eaten an avocado. (BrE)
This is the first time I ate an avocado. (AmE)

It was the first time I had ever eaten that dish. (BrE)
It was the first time I ever ate that dish. (AmE)

I mean, the sentence A and B mean that they have broken/broke his car RECENTLY, it's like 1 minute ago,5hours ago etc.

 

[GoesStation]

You can't break a car. Do you mean "They just wrecked his car"? That means that they wrecked his car very recently. "They have just wrecked his car" can mean the same thing. The context would determine which tense to use.

 

[Axa1970]

I mean, the sentence A and B mean that they have broken/broke his car RECENTLY, it's like 1 minute ago,5hours ago etc.

You can't break a car. Do you mean "They just wrecked his car"? That means that they wrecked his car very recently. "They have just wrecked his car" can mean the same thing. The context would determine which tense to use.

Yes, That's what I meant, so are those sentences correct in standard BrE, if I use past tense and Present perfect?

 

[emsr2d2]

I mean, the sentence A and B mean that they have broken/broke his car RECENTLY, it's like 1 minute ago,5hours ago etc.

I didn't query the timeline. I clearly queried the meaning of "broke his car". If you meant "wrecked his car" ("crashed his car" in BrE), then that's fine. The reader/listener would, of course, wonder who "they" are why they were driving his car in the first place.

 

[Axa1970]

I didn't query the timeline. I clearly queried the meaning of "broke his car". If you meant "wrecked his car" ("crashed his car" in BrE), then that's fine. The reader/listener would, of course, wonder who "they" are why they were driving his car in the first place.

So, are the sentences correct and accepted in BrE?

a. The police officer has just caught a burglar (or) The police officer recently has caught a burglar. (They mean that the police officer has caught a burglar not a long time ago).

b. My mother just cooked fish and chips (or) My mother recently cooked fish and chips (they mean that my mother cooked it not a long time ago).

c. Her husband had just bought her a new flat (or) Her husband recently had bought her a new flat. (They mean that her husband had bought it for her not a long time ago).

d. He never tried to leave his room.

e. He has never tried to leave his room.

f. He had never tried to leave his room.

G. He already called the police (or) he has already called the police (or) he had already called the police.

h. He didn't repair his father's car yet. (Or) he hasn't repaired his father's car yet (or) he hadn't repaired his car yet.

 

[Skrej]

I find the simple past unnatural in both those sentences, though perhaps some other American English speakers would use it.

As do I.

 

[emsr2d2]

I find the simple past unnatural in both those sentences, though perhaps some other American English speakers would use it.

As do I.

Hmm, maybe I'm mixing it up with some other BrE vs AmE difference. I was sure I'd seen AmE speakers on here say that things like "This is the best meal I ever ate" are OK in AmE.

 

[Axa1970]

So, if I use like this

a. He was never in New York (or) He never went to New York (was I ever in New York?/ Did I ever go to New York?)

b. He has never been to london (or) he has never gone to london (has he ever been to london? / has he ever gone to london?)

c. He had never been to Belfast (or) he had never gone to Belfast (had he ever been to Belfast? / had he ever gone to Belfast?)

if I use like this: e.g. Has he never ​been...? / did he never go to ...? / had he never been / has he never gone to..? / had he never gone to..? / was he never ​in..? So are they exist in english ?

so, are those sentences correct and accepted in british and American English? Which are BrE and which are AmE?

 

[emsr2d2]

So, if I use [STRIKE]like this[/STRIKE] these ...

a. He was never in New York. :tick:
He never went to New York. :tick:
Was I ever in New York? :tick:
Did I ever go to New York? :tick:

b. He has never been to London. :tick:
He has never gone to London. :tick:
Has he ever been to London? :tick:
Has he ever gone to London? :tick:

c. He had never been to Belfast. :tick:
He had never gone to Belfast. :tick:
Had he ever been to Belfast? :tick:
Had he ever gone to Belfast? :tick:

... are those sentences correct and accepted in British and American English? Which are BrE and which are AmE?

[STRIKE]If I use,[/STRIKE] [STRIKE]like this:[/STRIKE] [STRIKE]e.g.[/STRIKE] For example, do "Has he never ​been...? / Did he never go to ...? / Had he never been / Has he never gone to..? / Had he never gone to..? / Was he never ​in..?" [STRIKE]So are they[/STRIKE] exist in English ?

[STRIKE]so,[/STRIKE]

See above for my BrE answers. Of course, each one would have to be correct within context.

You need to work on your capitalisation.

 

[Axa1970]

See above for my BrE answers. Of course, each one would have to be correct within context.

You need to work on your capitalisation.

So, are the sentences correct with those two prepositions? Which do you prefer?

a. I was never in New York (or) I was never to New York.
b. I have never been in Adelaide (or) I have never been to Adelaide.
C. I will never be in Halifax. (Or) I will never be to Halifax.
d. I am never in Manchester. (or) I am never to Manchester.
e. I had never been in York (or) I had never been to York.

what are the differences between them?

 

[emsr2d2]

So, are the sentences correct with those two prepositions? Which do you prefer?

a. I was never in New York. :tick:
I was never to New York. :cross:

b. I have never been in Adelaide. :tick:
I have never been to Adelaide. :tick:
I don't have a preference. Without context, they're both possible.

C. I will never be in Halifax. :tick:
I will never be to Halifax. :cross:

d. I am never in Manchester. :tick:
I am never to Manchester. :cross:

e. I had never been in York. :tick:
I had never been to York. :tick:
I prefer "to" but there might be a context in which "in" is the natural choice.

What are the differences between them?

See above.

 

[Axa1970]

See above.

These are the contexts for what I meant

A: have (had) she ever been (to/in) Glasgow?
B: She has (had) never been there.

so, can I use "never" as a negative question?

for example : have (had) he ever been there? positive interrogative
Have (had) he never been there? negative interrogative.

 

[emsr2d2]

That's not context. What I mean is that we need to know the full situation and the surrounding sentences. That's how we know which tense to choose.

 

[Axa1970]

That's not context. What I mean is that we need to know the full situation and the surrounding sentences. That's how we know which tense to choose.

Ok! So, if I put this example like this one : "Jane has (ever) been to London" I think that Jane has visited to London, and now she comes back home, not stay in London. If I put "in" in the sentence, it changes its meaning so, "Jane has been in London for 5 years" that means that Jane has been living in London for 5 years.

"Jane had (ever) been to London" I think that Jane (died 5 yrs ago) had visited to London before she died, but she came back home.

"Jane had been in London for 5 years " I think that Jane (died 5 yrs ago) had been living in london for 5 years.

 

[Axa1970]

Ok! So, if I put this example like this one : "Jane has (ever) been to London" I think that Jane has visited to London, and now she comes back home, not stay in London. If I put "in" in the sentence, it changes its meaning so, "Jane has been in London for 5 years" that means that Jane has been living in London for 5 years.

"Jane had (ever) been to London" I think that Jane (died 5 yrs ago) had visited to London before she died, but she came back home.

"Jane had been in London for 5 years " I think that Jane (died 5 yrs ago) had been living in london for 5 years.

Hmm, maybe I'm mixing it up with some other BrE vs AmE difference. I was sure I'd seen AmE speakers on here say that things like "This is the best meal I ever ate" are OK in AmE.

Are those sentences correct ? ( which are BrE and which are AmE?)


a. I was never (in/to) York.


b. I will never be (in/to) Exeter.


c. I has never been (in/to) Glasgow.


d. I had never been (in/to) Leeds


e. I had/have never gone to London

which can I use "in" or "to" ? And what's the difference between them?