[Grammar] a man with or a man of ?

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henryma99

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Hi guys.

Which of the followings is better?
He is a man of good temper.
He is a man with good temper.

The first one sounds better to me.
But, are they the same in meaning?
If not, what are their differences? Which one should I use in the future?:-?
 

MikeNewYork

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Without any context, both sentences appear to have similar meanings.
 

Rover_KE

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In #2 I'd say '...with a good temper'.
 

henryma99

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MikeNewYork

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It is up to you to provide the contexts.
 

henryma99

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Hi Rover. So both of them are right actually?
 

Boris Tatarenko

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I'd highly suggest you read post #2 one more time, henryman99. :-D

Not a teacher nor a native speaker.
 
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