[Grammar] a man with or a man of ?

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henryma99

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Jun 30, 2015
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Hi guys.

Which of the followings is better?
He is a man of good temper.
He is a man with good temper.

The first one sounds better to me.
But, are they the same in meaning?
If not, what are their differences? Which one should I use in the future?:-?
 
Without any context, both sentences appear to have similar meanings.
 
In #2 I'd say '...with a good temper'.
 
It is up to you to provide the contexts.
 
Hi Rover. So both of them are right actually?
 
I'd highly suggest you read post #2 one more time, henryman99. :-D

Not a teacher nor a native speaker.
 
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