[Grammar] After all this time

[Snappy]

Is it okay to use "after all this time" to mean "up to now" in the following context?​

My mother passed away three years ago.


I'm still grieving over her death after all this time. (= I've been grieving over her death up to now.)​

Let me confirm that "after all this time" used in the following sentence does not mean "up to now," but it means "despite what has been said or expected."
I've decided to read it again after all this time. (= This time, I've decided to read it again after all.)​

 

[Rover_KE]

I'm still grieving over her death after all this time. (= I've been grieving over her death up to now.)

They are not the same. The second version implies to me that you have stopped grieving.

Let me confirm that "after all this time" used in the following sentence does not mean "up to now."

Confirmed.

Rover

 

[Snappy]

They are not the same. The second version implies to me that you have stopped grieving.

Confirmed.

Rover

Thanks.
Then "after all this time" means "after a long time that has passed," right?

 

[5jj]

Thanks.
Then "after all this time" means "after a long time that has passed," right?

Yes, though the use of this brings that time period up to the time of speaking.

Your interpretation of :

I've decided to read it again after all this time. (= This time, I've decided to read it again after all.) ,

confirmed by Rover is one interpretation. Depending on context and, if the utterance is spoken, intonation, it could also mean a long time that has passed until now. The ambiguity is removed if you place after all after decided or at the end in your interpretation. I feel that this is not so natural, but avoids the possibility of ambiguity in writing. In speech this is not so important, as intonation and pauses will make it clear.