[Grammar] And+too, so, either neither

[eslstudentinpb]

I have two sentences. The first is: Peggy has dimples, and so does Fran. (Also, Peggy has dimples, and Fran does too.)

Why do I use has in the first part of the sentence and does in the second half.

And, how is this sentence different than the one above. Why do I use has in both parts of the sentence.

Lance has been in class all week, and so has Marilyn. (Lance has been in class, and Marilyn has too.)


Thanks.

 

[5jj]

I have two sentences. The first is: Peggy has dimples, and so does Fran. (Also, Peggy has dimples, and Fran does too.)

Why do I use has in the first part of the sentence and does in the second half.

Because the auxiliary verb DO is frequently used with HAVE when HAVE is used as a full verb in questions, negative forms, question tags, etc, especially in AmE.

And, how is this sentence different than the one above. Why do I use has in both parts of the sentence.

Lance has been in class all week, and so has Marilyn. (Lance has been in class, and Marilyn has too.)

Because the auxiliary DO is never used with HAVE when HAVE is used as an auxiliary

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