[Grammar] Are they correct or not

[Sir Shakespeare]

Hello ​

I have three sentences . I just want to know whether they're correct or incorrect and what the correct form is ​

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1- I have broken my legs two years ago . ​

Can I use ago with the present perfect ??o ​

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2-James : Have you gone to see the doctor ?o ​

Mary : Not yet . I am going this afternoon .​

Is it better to say :Have you been to see the doctor ?? and is there any difference between the two ? o ​

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3- Don't give up . If you keep trying , I am sure find a good job soon . ​

Don't you think that we should insert YOU'LL after the word ' sure ' ? I've found this very sentence in one of my English books ​

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Thanks a lot​

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[Rover_KE]

1. No. 'I broke my legs two years ago.'

2. Yes. 'Have you been to see the doctor?'

3. Yes. 'I am sure you'll find....'

Rover

 

[euncu]

'

2. Yes. 'Have you been to see the doctor?'

Dear Rover,
Since you are both a native-speaker and an English teacher, I defer to your answer. But I admit that I'm a bit confused after having read your answer. Normally, I'd reword the second sentence as ;

Have you been to the doctor's ?

The sentence as it is written above, to my knowledge, which I never deem it to be comparable to yours, should be the correct form because here, we refer to a place, which in our case, it is the doctor's office (or wherever else he/she is practicing his/her profession). But in the sentence you suggested, the reference was given to an action (namely, to see the doctor) and this has become the sole source of confusion, which I mentioned in my first paragraph.

I'd be happy, if you or other members helped me solve my confusion.

Thanks for your replies in advance.

 

[bhaisahab]

Dear Rover,
Since you are both a native-speaker and an English teacher, I defer to your answer. But I admit that I'm a bit confused after having read your answer. Normally, I'd reword the second sentence as ;

Have you been to the doctor's ?

The sentence as it is written above, to my knowledge, which I never deem it to be comparable to yours, should be the correct form because here, we refer to a place, which in our case, it is the doctor's office (or wherever else he/she is practicing his/her profession). But in the sentence you suggested, the reference was given to an action (namely, to see the doctor) and this has become the sole source of confusion, which I mentioned in my first paragraph.

I'd be happy, if you or other members helped me solve my confusion.

Thanks for your replies in advance.

"Have you been to the doctor's?" is equally correct and idiomatic.

 

[Sir Shakespeare]

1. No. 'I broke my legs two years ago.'

2. Yes. 'Have you been to see the doctor?'

3. Yes. 'I am sure you'll find....'

Rover

Ok , Thanks a lot
I appreciate your answer

"Have you been to the doctor's?" is equally correct and idiomatic.

I think 'have been to' means that you went and you are now over here whereas 'have gone to' does mean you went and you're still there at the moment ; am I right ?

 

[emsr2d2]

Ok , Thanks a lot
I appreciate your answer

"Have you been to the doctor's?" is equally correct and idiomatic.

I think 'have been to' means that you went and you are now over here whereas 'have gone to' does mean you went and you're still there at the moment ; am I right ?

"Have been to" would certainly suggest that the person went and has left.

"Have gone to" could mean exactly the same, or it could mean that the person is still there.

If you phoned someone, having expected to find them at home, and said "I called at your house but you weren't there. Have you gone to the doctor?" then that would suggest that you think they're still at the doctor's surgery.

However, if you're talking to a friend face-to-face and they said "I have a terrible pain in my leg" and you said "Have you gone to the doctor [about it]?" then it would be clear that you meant the same thing as "Have you been to the doctor [about it]?" In that example, "been" and "gone" would be interchangeable.

 

[Sir Shakespeare]

Dear Rover,
Since you are both a native-speaker and an English teacher, I defer to your answer. But I admit that I'm a bit confused after having read your answer. Normally, I'd reword the second sentence as ;

Have you been to the doctor's ?

The sentence as it is written above, to my knowledge, which I never deem it to be comparable to yours, should be the correct form because here, we refer to a place, which in our case, it is the doctor's office (or wherever else he/she is practicing his/her profession). But in the sentence you suggested, the reference was given to an action (namely, to see the doctor) and this has become the sole source of confusion, which I mentioned in my first paragraph.

I'd be happy, if you or other members helped me solve my confusion.

Thanks for your replies in advance.

I don't know if I've got you well or not but I think you wonder how 'have been' is followed by ''to do sth'' , don't you ? ​

I think you can say : ​

I have been to a place ​

I have been to do sth ​

I check it up in my Longman Dictionary and here is the suitable example to make it clear ​

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Have you been to see the Van Gogh exhibition yet ?​

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Again , Many thanks for your answers ​

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