Bare infinitive of verb to be

[VOYAGER]

I have got a hard question about the verb to be as bare infinitive. You can, of course, use it after modal verbs (can/can’t be, will/won’t be etc.).

However you can’t use it in sentence forms of Present Simple Tense unlike all other bare infinitives. For example: go/read/want etc. can always be used in every sentence of Present Simple Tense. (Some simple examples: We go downtown./ Tom reads a book./She and her friends do not want to drink some beverages./etc.)

All around the World the use of verb to be in Present Simple Tense is taught using its three forms known as is/are/am. For this reason you can’t form sentences as in the following:

-We be consumers of this new product.

-Tom does not be a good pupil.

-Mary be a doctor. (The bare infinitive be may probably be expected or assumed not to take the suffix “-s” unlike the other ones.)

Instead, you must write the followings as already known:

-We are consumers of this new product.

-Tom is not a good pupil.

-Mary is a doctor.

Are there still some exceptional cases or sentence structures of Present Simple Tense in which bare infinitive of verb to be can be used? Your probable answers may simply be “No” as far as I can guess. However an explanation regarding why the bare infinitive of verb to be are divided into three parts as is/are/am for Present Simple Tense and into two parts as were/was for Past Simple Tense would be useful for non-native speakers of English. Because simply it may be wondered if a logical explanation is possible or not. (I hope that you see now why I call this language issue as a hard question of linguistics because the explanation itself may perhaps be very hard to state.)

 

[jutfrank]

be — Wordorigins.org

24 October 2022 The verb to be is highly irregular. The different forms of the word appear very different, with no apparent logic underlying the conjugations: PRESENT-DAY TO BE :

www.wordorigins.org

 

[Tarheel]

Verb tenses are not proper nouns and don't get capitalized.

 

[emsr2d2]

I have got a hard question about the verb "to be" as a bare infinitive. You can, of course, use it after modal verbs (can/can’t be, will/won’t be etc.).

Note my corrections above.

However, you can’t use it in sentence forms of the present simple tense unlike all other bare infinitives. For example, "go/read/want" etc. can always be used in every sentence of present simple Tense sentences.

Note my corrections above.

(Some simple examples: We go downtown./Tom reads a book./She and her friends do not want to drink some beverages./etc.)

"Reads" is not a bare infinitive.

All around the world, the use of the verb "to be" in the present simple tense is taught using its three forms, known as is/are/am. For this reason, you can’t form sentences as in the following sentences are incorrect:

-We be consumers of this new product.
-Tom does not be a good pupil.
-Mary be a doctor. (The bare infinitive be may probably be expected or assumed does not to take the suffix “-s” unlike the other ones.)

Instead, you must write: the followings as already known:

-We are consumers of this new product.
-Tom is not a good pupil.
-Mary is a doctor.

Note my corrections above.

Are there still some exceptional cases or sentence structures of in the present simple tense in which the bare infinitive of the verb to be can be used? Your probable answers may simply be “No”. as far as I can guess.

Note my corrections above.

However, an explanation regarding of why the bare infinitive of verb "to be" are is divided into three parts as is/are/am for the present simple tense and into two parts as were/was for the past simple tense would be useful for non-native speakers of English.

Note my corrections above.

Because simply it may be wondered I'm simply wondering if a logical explanation is possible or not. (I hope that you now see now why I called this language issue as a hard linguistic question of linguistics because the explanation itself may perhaps it might be very hard to state explain.)

Note my corrections above.

It's not hard to explain at all. As stated at the start of the link in post #2 "The verb 'to be' is highly irregular". Unless you're planning to study linguistics to a very high level, you don't need to worry about the "why". Just learn all the irregular verbs and use them correctly.