Before he got/gets here...

Sibx

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1) If he had wanted you back home before he gets here, he would have said it.
2) If he had wanted you back home before he got here, he would've said it.

Are both acceptable if 'getting back' is something that is in the future?
 
1) If he had wanted you back home before he gets here, he would have said it that.
2) If he had wanted you back home before he got here, he would've said it that.

Are both acceptable if 'getting back' is something that is in the future?
They're both OK. Note my change to the final word. You could use "that" or "so" at the end but "it" is unnatural.
 
Out of curiosity, why did you use "would have" in sentence #1 but the contraction "would've" in sentence #2?
 
Out of curiosity, why did you use "would have" in sentence #1 but the contraction "would've" in sentence #2?
I didn't realize I'd done that, no particular reason at all. Thank you for your response.
 
If his getting back is in the future, I think it's considerably better to use present tense 'gets'.

Also, you can finish just by saying 'he would've said', without need for a pronoun.
 
If something is true in the present time or going to happen in the future, either present or past tense could work, right?

'When she moved here she said she wanted to stay until her dad gets back/got back'

I know keeping it in the present tense would be simpler, 'When she moved here she said she wants to stay until her dad gets back' (If she's still staying and her dad getting back is in the future)

But if she's now changed her mind about how long she intends to stay, I think the first sentence sounds better.
In that case, would both tenses be grammatical if her dad getting back is in the future?

You've already said the present tense is better for my first question which is similar, but is the past tense grammatical too?

This is something that trips me up a lot.
 
Yes, both are grammatical.

if she's now changed her mind about how long she intends to stay, I think the first sentence sounds better.

I don't think so. I don't think that really makes a difference.

The key contributing factor here is how the action of the dad's returning is viewed with respect to possibility. If for example the dad is now dead, or has vowed never to return, or has already returned, or if there's any other reason to think he won't get back the focus on his returning would be distanced in possibility, and so the verb would probably be backshifted.

You've already said the present tense is better for my first question which is similar, but is the past tense grammatical too?

Yes.
 

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