99munsea94
Member
- Joined
- Aug 16, 2015
- Member Type
- Student or Learner
- Native Language
- English
- Home Country
- UK
- Current Location
- England
Can somebody provide me with a better perspective, please.
*Is the practise of separating a long compound predicate with a comma unequivocally incorrect, no matter the circumstances?
Here's a typical example sentence: "The lambasting took place at the advent of the new revolution in an unexpected fashion, and encouraged his detractors to rethinks their next move."
Clearly, the* second 'clause', as this writer perceives it by their use of the comma, is missing a tangible subject, so isn't this an incorrect construction? The pause obviously 'feels' natural when reading aloud, but is it correct?
Although I don't have a specific examples to hand, I've even come across this type of construction in the latest version of the Oxford Style Manual--I've tried looking for it but been unsuccessful--so it must be an 'acceptable practise'!? And I'll repeat: it's definitely in there somewhere. I know because it causes a knee jerk reaction everytime I read it.
As a final point, consider these two articles, which I stumbled across on the Web:
(1) http://www.businessinsider.com/commas-in-compound-predicates-2014-5?IR=T
(2) http://simplewriting.org/worst-punctuation-mistake/
Both explain that this is WRONG!
So, is this just one of those grey areas? Some pretty educated folks, including those at Oxford, seem to violate (perhaps undeliberately) this rule.
Thanks for any responses I may receive.
*Is the practise of separating a long compound predicate with a comma unequivocally incorrect, no matter the circumstances?
Here's a typical example sentence: "The lambasting took place at the advent of the new revolution in an unexpected fashion, and encouraged his detractors to rethinks their next move."
Clearly, the* second 'clause', as this writer perceives it by their use of the comma, is missing a tangible subject, so isn't this an incorrect construction? The pause obviously 'feels' natural when reading aloud, but is it correct?
Although I don't have a specific examples to hand, I've even come across this type of construction in the latest version of the Oxford Style Manual--I've tried looking for it but been unsuccessful--so it must be an 'acceptable practise'!? And I'll repeat: it's definitely in there somewhere. I know because it causes a knee jerk reaction everytime I read it.
As a final point, consider these two articles, which I stumbled across on the Web:
(1) http://www.businessinsider.com/commas-in-compound-predicates-2014-5?IR=T
(2) http://simplewriting.org/worst-punctuation-mistake/
Both explain that this is WRONG!
So, is this just one of those grey areas? Some pretty educated folks, including those at Oxford, seem to violate (perhaps undeliberately) this rule.
Thanks for any responses I may receive.