[Grammar] enough sth to do vs enough sth for doing / is there a rule?

[Buddy42]

Dear teachers!

Are both constructions below possible / idiomatic?

There wasn't enough money for buying new clothes.
There wasn't enough money to buy new clothes.

As far as I know, "enough" plus noun should be followed by an infinitive construction and not by a gerund one. But yesterday I stumbled over the second construction. Is it also correct?

Thank you in advance

Buddy42

 

[MikeNewYork]

Both of them work for me.

 

[Raymott]

I prefer the second in that example. (I assume you mean you stumbled over the first example.)
If there a verb following your "'enough' plus noun" ie. "enough noun to/for <verb>", then 'to' is usually better (to me).
"Is there enough food to feed everyone." not "... for feeding everyone."

But as you have expressed the rule, it's not right.
"Is there enough food for everyone?"; "There are enough supplies for months."

Even when followed by a verb, "for" is often OK, as your example is, though I can't think of an example where it is superior to the infinitive.

 

[Buddy42]

Thank you so much for your answers and explanations, MikeNewYork and Raymott!

Yes, you're right Raymott, I stumbled over the first one....just mixed it up when writing .
Anyway, you were of great help!

Have a nice day both of you

Buddy42