Fabulous time to be had by us all

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Beatriz Remusat

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May 28, 2022
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French
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France
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Is it correct to say:
Fabulous time to be had by us all , great meal and wines !!

Or should we say:
Fabulous time WAS had by us all, , ,
 
Is it correct to say the following?

A f
abulous time is to be had by us all, with a great meal and good wines!

Or Should we say this instead?

A f
abulous time WAS had by us all ...
Note my corrections above. The two sentences mean different things and refer to different times. The first refers to the future - a meal/wine you haven't had yet but you expect to have a fabulous time. The second refers to a time that has already passed.
 
Note my corrections above. The two sentences mean different things and refer to different times. The first refers to the future - a meal/wine you haven't had yet but you expect to have a fabulous time. The second refers to a time that has already passed.
Thank you very much, for your corrections; brilliant explaining. So, both are possible but must pay attention to times. I appreciate it.
 
Say:

Thank you for the corrections and the brilliant explanation.

And:

Both are possible in different in different contexts, right?

My sentence is more or less a stock phrase, usually:

A good time was had by all.

The difference between the two sentences is context (as already explained).
 
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