[Vocabulary] face was wreathed in welcoming smiles

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hhtt21

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"When Mrs Bailey opened the front door, her face was wreathed in welcoming smiles." Would you please explain the phrase "face was wreathed in welcoming smiles" especially with respect to "wreath".

Source: The Back House Ghosts by Catherine Sefton.
 
It's a literary/poetic use. Her smiles were decorating her face, like a welcoming wreath of flowers can decorate a door.
 
It's a literary/poetic use. Her smiles were decorating her face, like a welcoming wreath of flowers can decorate a door.

Can we say that it is also figurative as all poetic/literary uses?
 
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What do you mean by all? There are plenty of poetic/literary uses that are not figurative- it is simply one tool available to writers.
 
What do you mean by all? There are plenty of poetic/literary uses that are not figurative- it is simply one tool available to writers.
All of or 100% of them. I'm not familiar with poetic uses however I know that Steinbeck is a pretty poetic author and as far as I know his way of poetic writing is figurative. This makes difficult to understand his writings.
 
This makes difficult to understand his writings.
Do you mean "This makes it difficult for me to understand his writings"?
 
I would question that- Steinbeck is a very moving author who can make you weep, but I would say that this is more because of the stories and the humanity than the poetry. He's a great prose writer first and foremost. Besides which, there are many literary devices that are not poetic.
 
Do you mean "This makes it difficult for me to understand his writings"?
Yes. But does the dummy subject it really has to be there?
 
Do you mean "This makes it difficult for me to understand his writings"?

Yes. But does the dummy subject it really have to be there?
Yes, it does. Remember to use the bare infinitive after a helping verb: it has to be there; it does have to be there; does it have to be there?
 
Yes, it does. Remember to use the bare infinitive after a helping verb: it has to be there; it does have to be there; does it have to be there?
Good point for me. How is goes called if go (is?) called bare infinitive? Does haves become has, throwing away v and e?
 
Good point for me. [STRIKE]How[/STRIKE] What is goes called if go is called a bare infinitive? Does haves become has, throwing away v and e?
Goes is the third-person singular present simple form of the verb "go".

In English, only a few of the most common verbs have irregular conjugations in the present simple. "Have" is one of them. I imagine it may once have been conjugated as haves in the third person singular but I don't know. That conjugation was hath until around 1800.
 
Goes is the third-person singular present simple form of the verb "go".

In English, only a few of the most common verbs have irregular conjugations in the present simple. "Have" is one of them. I imagine it may once have been conjugated as haves in the third person singular but I don't know. That conjugation was hath until around 1800.
Now a few questions emerged from my mind. I classified them into two to ask for.

1. U.S became independent in 1776, if the conjugation was hath around 1800, how could have it turned into has in both main accents?
2. Could you also use "called as a bare infinitive" in my corrected post by you?
3. I don't think my way of using throw away was correct. So would you please explain this also?
 
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"Have" is one of them. I imagine it may once have been conjugated as haves in the third person singular but I don't know.

It was never haves. It became has from hath.
 
Now a few questions emerged from my mind. I classified them into two to ask for.

1. U.S became independent in 1776, if the conjugation was hath around 1800, how could have it turned into has in both main accents?
2. Could you also use "called as a bare infinitive" in my corrected post by you?
3. I don't think my way of using throw away was correct. So would you please explain this also?
1. I suspect spoken usage had already switched to "has" by the time the US became independent, with "hath" retained only in some formal written English. In fact, the founding document of the United States, the Declaration of Independence, uses "hath" only once. It uses "has" twenty-one times, so evidently the change had already mostly been adopted by 1776.

2) No.

3. It wasn't natural. You could have written "omitting" instead.
 
Goes is the third-person singular present simple form of the verb "go".

I imagine it may once have been conjugated as haves in the third person singular but I don't know. That conjugation was hath until around 1800.

4.. In practice, what is the difference between "I would imagine" and your use "I imagine" in the above?

5. With respect to possibility, what is the difference among "might have", "could have", "should have" and your use of "may have"?

6. Is my use of "questions emerged from my mind" correct and natural?
 
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