fate and fete

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Boris Tatarenko

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Is there any difference between their pronunciation?
They sound identically for me.
 
When fête is pronounced properly (ie the French pronunciation), it should sound like "fett". However, in BrE at least, it is now pronounced in exactly the same way as "fate". It's wrong but I can't imagine that it will ever change. It's been being pronounced like "fate" for so long and by so many people, I think it's impossible to change it now.

Note that your post should have said "They sound identical to me".
 
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It's wrong
It isn't wrong, it's English. Some 30% of our vocabulary comes from French, and we have anglicised the pronunciation of most. Why should fete/fête be any different?
 
Maybe because it's retained the accent, so it hasn't been fully assimilated- it still looks French. I think the BrE pronunciation is fine, though.
 
The fate of 'fete' is a fait accompli in Aus. They all sound the same here. (And we rarely spell it with the circumflex).
 
Interestingly (or not), most people in the UK pronounce the "fait" of "fait accompli" as "fett", just as "fête" should be pronounced!
 
Hmm. In my world,

Fete said fett, rhymes with set or pet.
Fate rhymes with wait, state
Fait (accompli) said same as "fate" though when I say it, it's more like fay -taw calm plee. I'm sure someone from France would laugh out loud at my attempt, though.
 
Interestingly (or not), most people in the UK pronounce the "fait" of "fait accompli" as "fett", just as "fête" should be pronounced!
I have to disagree again. Both the Longman Pronunciation Dictionary and the the Cambridge English Pronouncing Dictionary transcribe the first (= more common) pronunciation of 'fait' in 'fait accompli' exactly as they transcribe 'fate'.

And just who is it that says 'fête' should be pronounced as 'fett'?
 
Fait (accompli) said same as "fate" though when I say it, it's more like fay -taw calm plee. I'm sure someone from France would laugh out loud at my attempt, though.
They might well do so, but who are they to mock how we English speakers pronounce what are now accepted English expressions. If the French put some meat or cheese between two slices of bread, they call it what sounds vaguely like 'songweedge'. Having taken the word 'sandwich' into their language, they have a perfect right to pronounce it as they wish, and who are we to mock them?
 
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Loan words is not an ideal term IMO; once they cross over, they belong to the second language, and they can be pronounced the way the speakers of that language see fit. The same applies to following or ignoring things like forming plurals.
 
Saying it the French way has a certain je ne sais quois ;-)
 
I have to disagree again. Both the Longman Pronunciation Dictionary and the the Cambridge English Pronouncing Dictionary transcribe the first (= more common) pronunciation of 'fait' in 'fait accompli' exactly as they transcribe 'fate'.

And just who is it that says 'fête' should be pronounced as 'fett'?

I can't argue with what the dictionary says but I don't know anyone who actually says it like that. I always hear "fett a complee". I'm as guilty as the next person of this even though I speak French.

My only answer to your final question is "the French".

;-)
 
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