He hass(hases) tea every morning.

[Tait-ka]

We put "s" or "es" with the verb in the present simple tense when the subject is one of these: he, she, it, any singular noun.
For example,
He/she/Ali drinks tea every morning.
It rains.
He/she/Ali watches a movie every Sunday.

I know we can also use the verb "has" (=drink) with "tea":
He/she/Ali has tea every morning.

My question is: why do we not put "s" or "es" with the verb "has"? We should, according to the rule I mentioned above.
I mean the sentence should be:
He/she/Ali hass (hases) tea every morning.

 

[jutfrank]

But it does have a final 's'. You may wonder what happened to the 'v' but the 's' is there.

Historically speaking, as far as I can find out, the conjugated word 'has' actually predates the third person 's' rule.

Your post here is spookily similar to the question on this page, asked nine years ago:

The origin of the verb "has" (the verb "have" for third-singular person)

From what I know, in Simple Present, all verbs are followed by -s/es if the subject is a third-singular person. Such as makes, matches, buys, and studies. I also know that if the verb is have, it

english.stackexchange.com

 

[Tait-ka]

But it does have a final 's'. You may wonder what happened to the 'v' but the 's' is there.

Let me explain what I really want to ask.

Case 1:
When the subject is he, she, it or a singular noun, then we use the verb "has":
A) He/She/It/Ahmad has tea in the morning.

Case 2:
When the subject is I, we, you, they or a plural noun, then we use the verb "have":
B) I/We/You/They/Boys have tea in the morning.

We add "s" or "es" to the verb when we have Case 1. So has in sentence A should be "hass".
My question is: Why do we not use "hass" in sentence A?

I didn't ask about "haves": this form is not possible, because "s/es" rule is not used for Case 2.

I hope my question is clear now.

 

[jutfrank]

I hope my question is clear now.

Thank you for for explaining again but I understood your question the first time. You want to know why the word 'has' doesn't have a suffix 's' at the end. I'm saying that it does:

has

See? We add the 's' and the 'es' to the base form of the verb. At some point in time, the 'eth' suffix turned into an 's' suffix while the 'v' and 'e' disappeared. The word 'has' already is conjugated for the third person.

 

[SoothingDave]

Justfrank gave you the long, technical answer.

The short answer is that "have" is an irregular verb. Irregular verbs are "irregular" because they don't follow the regular pattern of "leave the verb alone unless it's in the third person singular, then add 's.'"

Your question should really be "why don't we say he 'haves' tea?"

That's what it would be if "have" were a regular verb.

 

[Tait-ka]

the conjugated word 'has' actually predates the third person 's' rule.

Can you please explain what you mean here?

 

[jutfrank]

Are you asking for a proper historical outline? If so, I'm not able to do that, but I'll give you a very simple account of how I understand it based on the little research that I've done.

A few hundred years ago, before using the third person 's', we used to use 'th' instead, so the modern word 'has' was spelled as 'hath'. In the 1500s, the verb suffix 'th' changed to 's' in writing, because people had begun to pronounce 'th' with a 's' sound. Now, the third person 'hath' was already irregular before this shift in spelling took place. Since 'have', being an auxiliary verb, was incredibly common, we dropped the 'v' sound at some point for the third person form, probably to make it easier to say.

Unless you're especially interested in etymology, you don't need to understand any of this. You just need to know that the word 'has' is irregular because it doesn't have a 'v' sound like its base form, and that it is a conjugated form of 'have', so you don't need to add anything extra. It already has the 's' ending, so you can't add another one.