he officially is.

[GoodTaste]

Does "he officially is" mean "he officially is (broke because he has donated all he has - about $8 billion - to other people)"?

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DFS cofounder Chuck Feeney wanted to die broke.
Now, four decades and $8 billion of giving later, he officially is.

- Bucket List
Source: Forbes October 2020

 

[GoodTaste]

"Giving later" sounds he has given now and he will do it later. I am not sure.

 

[Rover_KE]

Read it as 'Now, four decades later and $8 billion of giving later, he officially is'.

 

[GoesStation]

"Giving later" sounds he has given now and he will do it later. I am not sure.

I suggest you read it as "Now, after four decades and $8 billion of giving [STRIKE]later[/STRIKE], he officially is broke." "Later" at the end of the sentence means the same thing as "after" at the beginning. This is a common usage.

 

[GoodTaste]

Read it as 'Now, four decades later and $8 billion of giving later, he officially is'.

Suppose he said in 1980 that he wanted to die broke. During 1980 - 2020 - a timeframe of four decades - he has given $8 billion to other people. That is, "later" means "after 1980" there. Is this what you meant?