[Grammar] I can eat more than you can eat.

kadioguy

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I can eat more than you can eat.
I can eat more than you can.
I can eat more than you can do.
I can eat more than you.

I can run faster
than you can run.
I can run faster than you can.
I can run faster than you can do.
I can run faster than you.
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Are all of them acceptable? If not, could you tell me the reasons?
 

kadioguy

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I am more beautiful than you are beautiful.
I am more beautiful than you are.
I am more beautiful than you.
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The first is
not correct; the others are correct. Am I right?
 

kadioguy

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We don't replace a verb with DO when it follows a modal.
But I see this:

do
auxiliary verb
used instead of repeating a verb that has already been used

'Will Kay come?' 'She may do.'

https://www.ldoceonline.com/dictionary/do

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In this sentence 'may' is a modal verb and 'do' is used to replace the verb 'come'. :shock:
 

kadioguy

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But I see this:

'Will Kay come?' 'She may do.'

https://www.ldoceonline.com/dictionary/do

------------
In this sentence 'may' is a modal verb and 'do' is used to replace the verb 'come'. :shock:

So are there two modal verbs in this sentence ('may' and 'do')?
Is a contradiction between this sentence and what Piscean said (We don't replace a verb with DO when it follows a modal)?

Could you please help me?
 

Tarheel

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That's not very natural. Try:

A: Will Kay come?
B: She might.
 

GoesStation

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I think She may do is common in conversational British English.
 

kadioguy

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DO is not a modal verb.
But we can see this:

8Uh1W6x.jpg



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(Update)

OK, now I know that DO is an auxiliary verb, but that it is not a modal auxiliary verb.

(Question
)
Is a contradiction between this sentence and what Piscean said (We don't replace a verb with DO when it follows a modal)?
 
Last edited:

kadioguy

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Yes.

I should have qualified my statement more.

Could you tell me more, please?

I am confused. I don't know whether We can replace a verb with DO when it follows a modal. :-?
 

kadioguy

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Could you tell me more, please?

I am confused. I don't know whether We can replace a verb with DO when it follows a modal. :-?

In conversational British English maybe 'do' can replace a verb although the verb follows a modal verb.

Am I right?


(Update)
The question is posted on https://goo.gl/XmkexV
(Why do I post the same question there? Because I don't get an answer.)
 
Last edited:
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