[General] I have been tired

[Anil Giria]

I have been tired.

Is it passive voice? If so, what would be the active voice?

 

[Raymott]

No, 'tired' is an adjective. It's the present perfect tense of 'to be'. "I was tired (past tense); I have been tired (pres. perf.); I had been tired (past perf.)".

The same pattern can be passive, as in "I have been abused", meaning "Someone has abused me". But "Someone has tired me", although possible, isn't likely.

 

[Matthew Wai]

Is it possible to say 'I have been tired by the work', where 'tired' is a past participle?

 

[bhaisahab]

I don't find that natural, Matthew. We would be more likely to say "The work (has) tired me out".

 

[Anil Giria]

No, 'tired' is an adjective. It's the present perfect tense of 'to be'. "I was tired (past tense); I have been tired (pres. perf.); I had been tired (past perf.)".

The same pattern can be passive, as in "I have been abused", meaning "Someone has abused me". But "Someone has tired me", although possible, isn't likely.

Is been also used as "to be"?

 

[emsr2d2]

Is been also used as "to be"?

You seem to be asking the same question over and over again in different ways and in different threads. Unfortunately, it seems you don't understand the absolute basic construction of the verb "to be" in its different tenses. Consequently, your question doesn't make any sense.

To be = infinitive form

am/are/was/is/were/have been/has been are all different person/tense constructions stemming from "to be". If you don't understand that, you are not going to understand any of our answers.

 

[Anil Giria]

I have been amused.

I have been tired.

Both " has done " and " has
been done " are parts of English's present perfect tense. They have only one
difference : the first is active, the second is passive.

My understanding was that we use has been/have been (when the same is not perfect continuous) only in passive voice for present perfect tense.

 

[Matthew Wai]

My understanding was that we use has been/have been (when the same is not perfect continuous) only in passive voice for present perfect tense.

My understanding is that we do not have such a rule.

 

[emsr2d2]

I don't know where you're getting these rules from I think you need to get a better "rule" book.

 

[Anil Giria]

You seem to be asking the same question over and over again in different ways and in different threads. Unfortunately, it seems you don't understand the absolute basic construction of the verb "to be" in its different tenses. Consequently, your question doesn't make any sense.

To be = infinitive form

am/are/was/is/were/have been/has been are all different person/tense constructions stemming from "to be". If you don't understand that, you are not going to understand any of our answers.

Thanks for your reply. I understand bit about "to be" sentence. For example: Ram is a good boy. This sentence is "to be: sentence since here "is" is used as a main verb. Please correct if my understanding is wrong.

But I didn't understand why the following sentence is "to be" sentence:

I have been tired.

 

[emsr2d2]

Thanks for your reply. I understand bit about "to be" sentence. For example: Ram is a good boy. This sentence is "to be: sentence since here "is" is used as a main verb. Please correct if my understanding is wrong.

But I didn't understand why the following sentence is "to be" sentence:

I have been tired.

Because, as I have said multiple times, "have been" is the past perfect form of the verb "to be".

I have been tired. (First person singular, past perfect form + adjective)
He has been tired. (Third person singular, past perfect form + adjective)

 

[Anil Giria]

Sorry for asking same question again and again but this was not my intension.

I would like to give last try to clear my doubt:

I have been tired.

My understanding is that present perfect tense is formed by :

Subject + auxiliary verb (has,have)+ past participle. In sentence above:

I - Subject

Have: auxiliary verb

Been: past participle.

So the sentence above should be present perfect instead of "to be" as mentioned in Post: 2. "To be" sentence is : I have a car where "have" is used as main verb and there is no other verb in the sentence.

 

[Raymott]

"To be" sentence is : I have a car where "have" is used as main verb and there is no other verb in the sentence.

I'll have a last try too.
There's no way you could claim that "I have a car" is a "to be" sentence even if such a concept existed. "I am a car" might fit your definition.

"Been" is the past participle of 'to be'.
For example:
Walk: I walked; I have walked.
Sing: I sang; I have sung
Be: I was; I have been.

"I have been ..." is in the present perfect tense.
Now, there are two (at least) ways that this sentence can be finished: 1) with an adjective - "I have been sick", and 2) as a passive construction - "I have been abused". Either way, they use the present perfect tense of "to be". The second is in the passive voice of the present perfect tense.

If you still don't get it, why not put it aside for a few months and come back fresh to it?

 

[MikeNewYork]

Sorry but "have been" is the present perfect form of "to be". Ths past perfect form is "had been".