I have no intention to be/of being kicked out of my own home.

[nohabloingleas]

I have no intention to be/of being kicked out of my own home.

Can both "to be" and "of being" be used in this sentence?

 

[jutfrank]

No, only the latter.

 

[shootingstar]

Interesting. It would be useful to explain why. Could you comment on the reason, please?

 

[teechar]

It's a pattern. "intention" in such sentences* is usually followed by "of" +"-ing". It is not followed by "to" + infinitive.
I have no intention of giving up.
I have no intention to give up.
We had every intention of leaving.
We have every intention to leave.

* Note that in other sentences, "intention" can be followed by "to" + infinitive. For example, "His intention was to broker peace". However, note the pattern difference.

 

[shootingstar]

However, note the pattern difference.

Thank you very much.
However, I don't see any difference or any difference in the pattern and the meaning, I don't see any reason actually. Do you mean if I use the words I/you/ he/she etc. / have/has the intention the . . . -ing form has to follow?

 

[jutfrank]

Yes, it's a specific pattern: have + no intention of + -ing

 

[shootingstar]

Thank you.
I think the same is true of the expression with the intention, right?

Business bids are made with the intention of trying to win a contract - is this a possible example?

 

[teechar]

Yes, but "business bids" is not very natural. Try perhaps "In business, bids are made ...etc".
Otherwise, the sentence works.