Is the word "need" used as auxiliary verb in American English?

khauff85

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Is the word "need" used as auxiliary verb in American English?
Can you suggest me tons of videos link (could be in youtube) about american english grammar?

Regards,
 

probus

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As far as I know, need is not used as an auxiliary verb in any dialect of English.

Grammar does not vary at all among the various dialects of English. Pronunciation and the preferred word or phrase for a given meaning are what vary, not grammar.
 
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Raymott

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Grammar does not vary at all among the various dialects of English.
This might not be strictly true, depending on your definition of 'dialect' and 'dialect of English'. Grammar varies a lot in Black American English, Jamaican English, etc. Without getting too exotic, the use of the past tense instead of the present perfect is a well-known tendency in AmE:
"Did you have breakfast yet" (AmE, CanE)
"Have you had breakfast yet?" (Elsewhere, as far as I know.)
These differences are preferences, not categorical. But I think if you recognise Indian English, Hong Kong English, etc. you'll find a wide range of grammar variants. I find that what we teach is here is a very standard International English that would not disgrace you anywhere, with occasional comments on exotic and non-mainstream forms.
 

5jj

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As far as I know, need is not used as an auxiliary verb in any dialect of English.
Need can function as a modal (auxiliary) in BrE.

You needn't come in to work tomorrow; I''ll look after the office.
I don't think I need worry about George.


I don't think this is common in AmE.
 

tzfujimino

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Hello.
I'd like to ask a question here.

Please follow the link and scroll down to 'GRAMMAR'.

It says:
Verb patterns
You can say that you need to do something
I need to clean (NOT I need clean) the house.

I understand that "need" as a modal can be used in negative and interrogative statements/sentences.
"Need to" should be used in affirmative statements/sentences.

Do I understand it correctly?

Thank you.
 

5jj

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I understand that "need" as a modal can be used in negative and interrogative statements/sentences.
And near-negative statements: I need hardly tell you how important this is.

"Need to" should be used in affirmative statements/sentences.
'Need to' can also be used in negative and interrogative utterances:

I need to go to the office tomorrow.

I don't need to go to the office tomorrow.
I needn't go to the office tomorrow.
I don't think I need (to) go to the office tomorrow,

Need you go to the office tomorrow?
Do you need to go to the office tomorrow/
 

tzfujimino

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'Need to' can also be used in negative and interrogative utterances:

I need to go to the office tomorrow.

I don't need to go to the office tomorrow.
I needn't go to the office tomorrow.
I don't think I need (to) go to the office tomorrow,

Need you go to the office tomorrow?
Do you need to go to the office tomorrow/

Thank you, 5jj.
I wholeheartedly agree with you.
I should have said (=What I meant was) "'Need' as a modal should be avoided in affirmative statements/sentences." or "'Need to' should be used (instead of 'need' as a modal) in affirmative statements/sentences."

For example:

'need' as a modal
1. I needn't go to the office tomorrow. - Negative, therefore it's correct.
2. Need I go to the office tomorrow? - Interrogative, therefore it's correct.
3. I need go to the office tomorrow. - Affirmative, therefore it's questionable/probably incorrect - it should be "I need to go to..."
However, "I don't think I need go to the..." is fine. It is probably because it begins with 'I don't think...', which is negative.

Could you check if I understand it correctly, please?

Thank you.
 

Marco_BR

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Inside this matter, the "need" in the sentence below is not an auxiliary verb?

"I need to pay my debts."

Thanks!
 

5jj

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the "need" in the sentence below is not an auxiliary verb?

"I need to pay my debts."
No. One of the defining features of modal verbs is that they are followed by a bare infinitive, not a to-infinitive.
 

Marco_BR

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5jj, thank you!
I make confusion with the morphology of my mother tongue.
Thank you again!
 

Weaver67

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No. One of the defining features of modal verbs is that they are followed by a bare infinitive, not a to-infinitive.
I would not like to confuse the matter, but does this work with "ought"? Should we regard "ought" as an exception?
 
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5jj

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It's not an exception. It's not a core modal.
 
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