it appears that way

[GoldfishLord]

Kelly B:
Yes, you understand it correctly. The structure allows for ambiguity - it avoids the need to specify him/her/somebody.
I told somebody to kill him: OK
I ordered him to be killed: not really - him is not the direct object of ordered
I ordered to kill him: no
I ordered that he be killed: another possibility.
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Le Pamplemousse:
Kelly, while it is true that "him" is not the object of the order, the original construction (I ordered him killed) appears that way also, and is, I believe, a shortened version of "I ordered him to be killed".

Although, I can't give a good reason why it appears this way.
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(Retrieved from https://forum.wordreference.com/threads/i-ordered-him-killed.86364/#post-586557)
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I'd like to know if the two "appears"'s mean "to seem".

 

[Charlie Bernstein]

I'd like to know if the two "appears" mean "[STRIKE]to[/STRIKE] seems".

Yes, it does.

 

[Rover_KE]

Yes, they do.

 

[jutfrank]

I don't really understand your question. Are you really asking whether appear and seem are completely synonymous?

Pamplemousse used the verb appear because he/she was looking at the surface appearance of the grammatical structure of the sentence. It looks from the syntax as if him is the receiver of the ordering, where in fact that isn't the case.