[Grammar] I've not seen

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CarloSsS

Senior Member
Joined
Aug 8, 2010
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Student or Learner
Native Language
Czech
Home Country
Czech Republic
Current Location
Czech Republic
Is this structure correct? I know that using "I haven't (or have not) seen ..." etc. is the more usual and undoubtedly correct way of expressing the idea. But would these be acceptable? I've head that in informal BrE, these can be used:
  • I've not seen him lately.
  • I've not had any problems yet.
  • I've not ever met with such ignorance.
  • ...
 
They are fine, though 'never' is more natural than 'not ever' in the third.
 
Thank you for your answer. Is it informal, formal or neutral? Also, could somebody tell me whether this is acceptable in AmE or not?
 
It is not very formal - we don't use contractions in very formal writing or speaking - but it's not particularly informal.
 
I don't find them weird, but as an American, I'm much, much more likley to say "I haven't..." than "I've not..."
 
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