[Grammar] John is to be blamed for the mistake once his supervisors have heard about ...

[kadioguy]

I can assure you that John is to be blamed for the mistake once his supervisors have heard about what he did during the incident.

https://forum.wordreference.com/threads/is-to-do-vs-is-to-be-done.3112514/post-15739089
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I am wondering why the blue part is used in the present perfect.

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a. I can assure you that John is to be blamed for the mistake once his supervisors have heard about what he did during the incident.

b. I can assure you that John is to be blamed for the mistake once his supervisors hear about what he did during the incident.
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What different effects do (a) and (b) have?

(I created b. for comparison.)

 

[tedmc]

The hearing is a one-off action after which John is blamed. The completion of the hearing to trigger the blaming calls for the present perfect tense. I think the simple present implies a repeated action of hearing.

 

[GoesStation]

I don't.

Right. Including "once" limits it to a single occurrence.

 

[jutfrank]

a. I can assure you that John is to be blamed for the mistake once his supervisors have heard about what he did during the incident.

b. I can assure you that John is to be blamed for the mistake once his supervisors hear about what he did during the incident.

The red parts don't really go with the rest of the sentences.

 

[tedmc]

I don't.

If the present tense is okay in the context, then why was my post corrected in this thread (post #7)?

https://www.usingenglish.com/forum/threads/277923-a-pipe-clogged-like-sausage

 

[kadioguy]

There is very little significant difference.

So can learners use both to mean the same thing?

I don't find the 'is to' very natural in this particular sentence, but that's not what you asked about.

I am willing to know about that.

 

[kadioguy]

The red parts don't really go with the rest of the sentences.

How about these two?

I can assure you, John is to be blamed for the mistake once his supervisors hear/have heard about what he did during the incident.

I can assure you, once his supervisors hear/have heard about what he did during the incident, John is to be blamed for the mistake.

 

[tedmc]

I would say:

I can assure you that John will be blamed...

I think is to be blamed does not go with I assure you.

 

[tedmc]

Please explain.

 

[jutfrank]

How about these two?

I can assure you, John is to be blamed for the mistake once his supervisors hear/have heard about what he did during the incident.

I can assure you, once his supervisors hear/have heard about what he did during the incident, John is to be blamed for the mistake.

No, that's the same thing, with the clauses reversed.

Decide whether you're asking about the is to part or the once + present perfect part. Don't put both parts in the same sentence.

 

[kadioguy]

Decide whether you're asking about the is to part or the once + present perfect part.

I will stick to the original one.

 

[kadioguy]

a. I can assure you that John is to be blamed for the mistake once his supervisors have heard about what he did during the incident.

b. I can assure you that John is to be blamed for the mistake once his supervisors hear about what he did during the incident.

There is very little significant difference.

Questions:

1. What is the very little significant difference?

2. Can we roughly use both to mean the same thing?

 

[kadioguy]

Questions:

1. What is the very little significant difference?

2. Can we roughly use both to mean the same thing?

Hi, friends. I am not sure about the two questions. Could you help me with them?

 

[tedmc]

I am keen to know too as my explanation earlier was not accepted. Knowing that something is correct without knowing why is not good enough for learning.