King James style English

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Dustinn

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Is this verse in 1John of the Bible
The right way to pernounce the phrase
Hears us
Check this
1John5:15 And if we know that he hear us, whatsoever we ask, we know that we have the petitions that we desired of him.
I guess my question is around the part
Where he says hear us, shouldn't they say hears us??
 
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probus

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Because the if-clause is conditional, the subjunctive mood is used. Although the subjunctive has largely fallen out of use nowadays, when the King James translation was made the subjunctive was mandatory in conditionals.
 
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Dustinn

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Because the if-clause is conditional, the subjunctive mood is used. Although the subjunctive has largely fallen out of use nowadays, when the King James translation was made the subjubctive was mandatory in conditionals.
So Basically that particular sentence
Is perfectly right and those were commonly written in those periods
And
In there right style at that era..
 

5jj

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Is this verse in 1 John of the Bible the right way to pernounce say the phrase "Hears us"?

1 John 5:15: And if we know that he hear us, whatsoever we ask, we know that we have the petitions that we desired of him.
I guess my question is around the part hhere it says "hear us", shouldn't they say "hears" us??
Note my corrections. Don't use random line-breaks.
 

Dustinn

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Note my corrections. Don't use random line-breaks.
I agree, I made some errors in the question but back to the question
Is the verse right for that the time
Periods that english was written that way
Or was there a error in the verse..
 

Tarheel

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I agree. I made some errors in the question, but back to the question itself.
Is the verse right for that time period?
Or was there a error in the verse?.
It's hard to imagine that King James would have hired people who didn't know how to write in English for their time period.
 
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