"may not be" vs "may be not"

Status
Not open for further replies.

lagoo

Member
Joined
Feb 5, 2017
Member Type
Student or Learner
Native Language
Chinese
Home Country
China
Current Location
China
(1) She may not be at home.
(2) She may be not at home.

Is there any difference between these two sentences?
 
1. It is impossible for her to be at home.
2. It is possible for her to be not at home.
 
In 1. not negates the modality of may, to make may not. (The function of may may or may not be impossibilty.)
In 2. not negates at home, to make not at home.
 
(1) She may not be at home.

That's good. You can also say:

- She might not be at home.
- She might not be home.
- She may not be home.

(2) She may be not at home.

That's not good. You can say:

- She may not be home.
- She may not be at home.
- She might not be home.
- She might not be at home.
- Maybe she's not at home.
- Maybe she's not home.


Is there any difference between these two sentences?

Yes. The first is correct. The second isn't.
 
1. It is impossible for her to be at home.
2. It is possible for her to be not at home.
No, that's incorrect.
Sentence #1 in post #1 means she may be at home or she may be somewhere else.
Sentence #2 in post #1 is incorrect, as Charlie Bernstein has pointed out.
 
Last edited:
No, that's incorrect.
Sentence #1 in post #1 means she may be at home or she may be somewhere else.
Sentence #2 in post #1 is incorrect, as Charlie Bernstein has pointed out.

Does that mean we cannot put "not" after "a modal verb + be" to negate the sentence?
 
Does that mean we cannot put "not" after "a modal verb + be" to negate the sentence?
I think "cannot" is too strong, but it's certainly much more natural to put the "not" immediately after the modal.
 
Although She may be not at home is possible, it's awkward and not very natural. Instead of negating at home, you can simply say She may be out.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top