(1) She may not be at home.
That's good. You can also say:
- She might not be at home.
- She might not be home.
- She may not be home.
(2) She may be not at home.
That's not good. You can say:
- She may not be home.
- She may not be at home.
- She might not be home.
- She might not be at home.
- Maybe she's not at home.
- Maybe she's not home.
Is there any difference between these two sentences?
No, that's incorrect.1. It is impossible for her to be at home.
2. It is possible for her to be not at home.
No, that's incorrect.
Sentence #1 in post #1 means she may be at home or she may be somewhere else.
Sentence #2 in post #1 is incorrect, as Charlie Bernstein has pointed out.
I think "cannot" is too strong, but it's certainly much more natural to put the "not" immediately after the modal.Does that mean we cannot put "not" after "a modal verb + be" to negate the sentence?
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