On her arm

[CSHY]

Please help! I don't have a clue how the "on her (arm)" part is realized.

I gave her an ointment for the itchy bite on her arm (recording clip from forvo.com).

I suppose the clip is a correct and natural pronunciation. And there is nothing special, to native English speakers, in the pronunciation of the whole sentence. Is it so?

To my ears there seems to be a glottal stop at the end of the "(o)n" sound. Is it so? And is it natural among native Englishs peakers?

Also, there is no linking between every adjacent two words in "on her arm". Is this common, or is the linked version "on(h)er'arm" much more common in real conversations of native English speakers?

 

[emsr2d2]

It's clear and natural for everyday AmE. There's a glottal stop on the "te" at the end of "bite" but "on her arm" sounds perfectly normal to me. The first "t" in "ointment" is also a glottal stop.
You're right that the "h" in "her" isn't pronounced so the last three words sounds like "onnerarm". This is normal in casual everyday speech.

 

[CSHY]

It's clear and natural for everyday AmE. There's a glottal stop on the "te" at the end of "bite" but "on her arm" sounds perfectly normal to me. The first "t" in "ointment" is also a glottal stop.
You're right that the "h" in "her" isn't pronounced so the last three words sounds like "onnerarm". This is normal in casual everyday speech.

I didn't hear the plosion/burst of air while there should be one between "(o)n-(h)er(arm). This is what is confusing me.

 

[5jj]

Unlike emsr2d2, I hear the /h/ in her. However, I agree that the pronunciation is clear and natural for everyday AmE.

 

[CSHY]

I think the first part of the pronunciation of the sentence is normally north American. But the last part "on her arm" sounds to me like
/əŋɦɐ(ɹ)'a:ɹm/.
{The specific sound change mechanism might be: ŋ←n caused by the following ɦ. ɜ/ɐ←ə caused by the following open (ɹ)a. And the (ɹ) is especially weak and brief, caused by the following open a as well--the position of the front part of the tongue for the (ɹ) is lowered than for the typical ɹ}.
Probably this realization sounds all the same as /ən(ɦ)əɹ'a:m/, which is the modal/typical and expected in my mind, to native English speakers' ear: the minute discriminations are insignificant and therefore even imperceptive to their ears.
I'm not sure if it's the case.

 

[Skrej]

This speaker providing the example has a fairly strong NYC accent (possibly Brooklyn).

I think she may be trying to suppress it for the purpose of providing the pronunciation sample, but it still seeps through. She can't quite fully enunciate the initial /h/ in 'her', and switches to a non-rhotic /r/ as /h/ in 'arm' (sounds like 'ahm').

She also nasalizes /oi/ in 'ointment'.