I'd agree, it's a gerund. In "She has trouble coping", I don't think you could claim that 'coping' modifies 'trouble'. (That would be confusing semantics with syntax).has - verb
trouble - direct object of verb
coping - ? (gerund modifier for trouble?)
coping with school - ? (is it a verbal phrase that's using a gerund/phrasal verb which, in turn, acts as modifier for trouble?)
if it were 'she has coping trouble',
would coping = gerund modifier of trouble?
has - verb
trouble - direct object of verb
coping - ? (gerund modifier for trouble?)
coping with school - ? (is it a verbal phrase that's using a gerund/phrasal verb which, in turn, acts as modifier for trouble?)
if it were 'she has coping trouble',
would coping = gerund modifier of trouble?
James,
I am embarrassed to say that the question originates from class. I am embarrassed because it is a class in which I am tutoring an ESL student. Oy!
(In my defense, I have a teaching credential in single subject English, not a B.A. [or M.A., or certificate] in TESL.)
I completely forgot about object complements. (Oy again.) Yes, I think 'coping with school' would be an object complement in this case.
Ive never heard of your Theory #1, the suppressed preposition theory. If the sentence read, "She had trouble in coping with school", why would the preposition be necessary to explain why "coping" is a gerund? Is it because coping would be the noun object of the prep. phrase 'in coping'? Would that then make 'with school' a prep. phrase that modifies coping?
This teacher much appreciates your self-qualified 'non-teacher' help!
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