[Grammar] Past Perfect usage, omitting auxiliary verb

romVsen

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Hi, all
Here are two examples of Past Perfect usage:
  1. Jane was furious because she’d overslept and missed the bus.
  2. Mary was very disappointed with her son. He hadn’t studied enough and had failed his exams.
Please confirm that the following explanation is right or give correct one:
  • In 1) we use "and missed the bus" instead of "and had missed the bus" because we can omit "had" in that case (the second occurrence of "had" would only repeat the first one)
  • In 2) we can't omit "had" in "had failed his exams" because it's don't repeat the first occurrence.
  • Omitting the second occurrence is not possible for "hadn't". For example, we can't say "Mary was very disappointed with her son. He hadn’t studied enough and passed his exams." (meaning that "he hadn't passed his exams"). We should say "He hadn’t studied enough and hadn't passed his exams."
Thank you!
Roman
 

Tdol

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1 Yes, we can.
2 I see nothing wrong with hadn't studied enough and failed his exams.
 

romVsen

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2 I see nothing wrong with hadn't studied enough and failed his exams.
Well, let me describe it more detailed. The examples provided show the usage of Past Perfect. They were taken from "Headway" English course.
And here is an explanation (my interpretation):
One action in past: Mary was very disappointed with her son.
Another action in past before "Mary was very disappointed": He hadn’t studied enough and had failed his exams.
Thus, we use Past Perfect for "hadn’t studied enough and had failed his exams".

And it seems that your suggestion is not correct.

Thank you!
 

Rover_KE

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As another native speaker, I'd accept both versions.
 

romVsen

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As another native speaker, I'd accept both versions.
Thank you!
Is it correct to use only past tense in that example: "He didn't study enough and failed his exams." ?
 

Weaver67

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I agree with Tdol on that there is no problem with hadn't studied enough and failed his exam.

I guess the problem here is the particle "not" used alongside the auxiliary "had" to form the contraction "hadn't". As far as I know, in cases such as you described, we can omit one and the same auxiliary on its second occasion in a clause; but the negative particle "not" is never considered to be a part of an auxiliary itself and should be seen as separate from the auxiliary.

One might say :
"He had not studied enough and failed his exam" (="He had not studied enough and had failed failed his exam")
"He had studied enough and not failed his exam (="He had studied enough and had not failed failed his exam")

Please be aware that I am not a teacher.
 
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Tdol

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Thus, we use Past Perfect for "hadn’t studied enough and had failed his exams".

And it seems that your suggestion is not correct.

Your original question was different- you asked me for confirmation that you couldn't omit had before failed. I said that you could omit it, which other native speakers here seem to agree with. I didn't say that it was incorrect with had- it isn't.
 
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