What I mean, however, by 'a philosophical rather than a strictly linguistic point' is that the problem with the solution that you propose strikes me as a conceptual one rather than one relating purely to sentence-structuring possibilities. But I disagree.
Allow me an example: it is perfectly possible to take the two structures [can V] and [(be) supposed to V] - both quite 'real and distinctly different' - and combine them to make a sentence such as
? I can be supposed to meet him at noon today.
Sorry, I don't see what this has to do with my earlier posts.
In very much the same way, I have trouble with your suggestion of
? I had to not do it. Now this has to do with my earlier posts, so I'll try to explain.
I believe some would say 'I had not to do it.', but I'll try to explain why 'I had to not do it.' makes more sense to me grammatically and semantically.
I (must)(have to) do it. (same meaning)
I (must not)(have to not) do it. (same meaning)
past tense: 'I ?? must ??? not?? do it.' 'I had to not do it.'
Since we can't say something like 'I (had to) mustn't do it yesterday.', I think that 'I had to not do it yesterday.' is the correct choice. It's grammatically and semantically correct.
The following, from a previous thread (and I don't know if you followed that thread), is related to the above and may help you better understand where I am coming from.
I did it not to become poor, but to follow my dream. (I did it to follow my dream, but I became poor as a result.)
I did it to not become poor. (I did it to prevent myself from becoming poor.)
So the 'not to' and 'to not' grammars are both legitimate but have different meanings.