perfect proggresive+when+present perfect

[Raymott]

In this question I could also have used [STRIKE]also [/STRIKE]the present perfect. What would be the difference? "Have you ever watched........."

With "Have you ever watched ... ":
Has this ever happened? - you're watching something on your laptop and you think "Hey! This would be awesome if I could watch it on my TV."?

With "Have you ever been watching ... ":
Has this ever happened while you've been watching something on your laptop? - you think "Hey! This would be awesome if I could watch it on my TV."

 

[ostap77]

With "Have you ever watched ... ":
Has this ever happened? - you're watching something on your laptop and you think "Hey! This would be awesome if I could watch it on my TV."?

With "Have you ever been watching ... ":
Has this ever happened while you've been watching something on your laptop? - you think "Hey! This would be awesome if I could watch it on my TV."

"Have you ever been riding in a car with someone driving under the influence?"

The diver could have been driving his car after the consumtion of alcohol.

OR

"Have you ever ridden in a car with someone driving under the influence?"

Would there be a difference in meaning to the listener? How would you explain it? I assume that an explanation for both examples would be the same "Has this ever happened?-You were riding in a car with the driver you had been drinking."?

 

[Raymott]

"Have you ever been riding in a car with someone driving under the influence?"

The diver could have been driving his car after the consumtion of alcohol.

OR

"Have you ever ridden in a car with someone driving under the influence?"

Would there be a difference in meaning to the listener? How would you explain it? I assume that an explanation for both examples would be the same "Has this ever happened?-You were riding in a car with the driver you had been drinking."?

You can say either and I (to speak personally) will understand the same thing.
I feel like you're pushing me into regions of subtely that don't exist. English in not a constructed language, and there is not always a perfect way to say something.

 

[ostap77]

You can say either and I (to speak personally) will understand the same thing.
I feel like you're pushing me into regions of subtely that don't exist. English in not a constructed language, and there is not always a perfect way to say something.

No way have I been trying to lure you into regional differences. Been hearing different things in conversation. Would my attempt be OK in terms of the negative inversion "no way...."?

 

[Raymott]

No way have I been trying to lure you into regional differences. Been hearing different things in conversation. Would my attempt be OK in terms of the negative inversion "no way...."?

Yes, it is correct to invert. You can say, "No way was I doing that."

By "regions of subtley", no way did I mean geographical regions. I meant abstract regions. I mean that I feel I'm being asked to make subtle distinctions where no difference actually exists. The difference exists in a region of subtlety that is itself non-existent. (Not that I mind that, but it's difficult to do, and it invites the invention of imaginary differences - entering non-existent regions of subtlety.)

 

[ostap77]

Yes, it is correct to invert. You can say, "No way was I doing that."

By "regions of subtley", no way did I mean geographical regions. I meant abstract regions. I mean that I feel I'm being asked to make subtle distinctions where no difference actually exists. The difference exists in a region of subtlety that is itself non-existent. (Not that I mind that, but it's difficult to do, and it invites the invention of imaginary differences - entering non-existent regions of subtlety.)

It would be "subtlety" I believe? The reason I wrote "no way have I been..." is that there have been a numder of posts in which we discuded this matter.

Is it OK with "there have been a number......." and tenses after that?

 

[Raymott]

It would be "subtlety" I believe?
Yes, it would. I think I spelt it correctly a few times further on in the post.

The reason I wrote "no way have I been..." is that there have been a numder of posts in which we discuded this matter.
Yes, that was the correct way to write it.

Is it OK with "there have been a number......." and tenses after that?
Is what OK with "there have been a number ...?" (Note, three dots for an ellipsis, an extra one for a period.
The freestyle use of ........ is not correct punctuation.

R.