Reported Speech

[Anneclarice]

Hello,
my question concerns an observation I have made recently. It's connected with backshifting that usually occurs when we convert sentences into Reported Speech.
One of my grammar books says that in case of Past Simple or Past Continuous we can either change the tense or leave it unchanged. And here are examples that confuse me:
1. 'I got my exam results last week,' she said. --> She said that she had got her exam results the week before/the previous week. (the answer key provides this answer only)
2. 'I got up late,' Tonia said. --> Tonia said she had got/ got up late. (two options)
I'm confused as I cannot see why in sentence 1 the past simple tense must be changed into the past perfect, whereas in sentence 2 it can remain unchanged. Is there any reason behind that? Any grammar-related intricacy that enforces the tense change in sentence 1? Or can it be that the answer key is not precise enough? I'd appreciate some clarification on that matter.
Best wishes
Anna

 

[Charlie Bernstein]

Hello,
My question concerns an observation I have made recently. It's connected with backshifting that usually occurs when we convert sentences into reported speech. One of my grammar books says that in case of past simple or past continuous we can either change the tense or leave it unchanged. And here are examples that confuse me:

1. 'I got my exam results last week,' she said. --> She said that she had got her exam results the week before/the previous week. (the answer key provides this answer only)

Both "the week before" and "the previous week" are correct. In American English, we would say "had gotten."

2. 'I got up late,' Tonia said. --> Tonia said she had got up late. (two options) You don't get late. You get up late. Again, In the US we'd say "had gotten."

I'm confused as I cannot see why in sentence 1 the past simple tense must be changed into the past perfect,

In 1's second sentence, it's correct either way.

whereas in sentence 2 it can remain unchanged.

The second sentence of 2 is also correct either way, as long as you say "got up late" and not "got late."

Is there any reason behind that? Any grammar-related intricacy that enforces the tense change in sentence 1?

I don't know.

Or can it be that the answer key is not precise enough? I'd appreciate some clarification on that matter.

Best wishes.
Anna

That doesn't answer all your questions, but it's a start. We'll see what others say.

Meanwhile, mind your capitals!

 

[jutfrank]

Is there any reason behind that? Any grammar-related intricacy that enforces the tense change in sentence 1? Or can it be that the answer key is not precise enough?

No. No. Yes.