[General] Someone said to Confucius, ‘Why do you not take part in govern- ment?'

Status
Not open for further replies.

Sneymarin

Member
Joined
Sep 26, 2019
Member Type
Student or Learner
Native Language
Moldavian
Home Country
Moldova
Current Location
Italy
Hello, I was reading "Analects. Sayings of Confucius. Translated by. D. C. Lau", a collection of Confucius's sayings brought together by his pupils shortly after his death in 497 BC, and stumbled upon this paragraph:

Someone said to Confucius, ‘Why do you not take part in govern- ment?'The Master said, ‘The Book of History says,“Oh! Simply by being a good son and friendly to his brothers a man can exert an influence upon government." In so doing a man is, in fact, taking part in government. How can there be any question of his having actively to “take part in government"?'

To me the last sentence looks particularly weird and grammatically wrong, but given the fact that it's from an actual serious book with a reputable translation it's most likely correct. I hope someone could kindly enlighten me as to why that last sentence is actually correct.

Thank you for your time.
 
Last edited:

tedmc

VIP Member
Joined
Apr 16, 2014
Member Type
Interested in Language
Native Language
Chinese
Home Country
Malaysia
Current Location
Malaysia
The last sentence using the infintive is not correct.

I think it should be "his having actively taken part in government".
 

jutfrank

VIP Member
Joined
Mar 5, 2014
Member Type
English Teacher
Native Language
English
Home Country
England
Current Location
England
I can't see anything wrong with it. Which part is concerning you?

The to-infinitive is fine, by the way, tedmc. It's part of an 'obligation' have to.
 

Rover_KE

Moderator
Staff member
Joined
Jun 20, 2010
Member Type
Retired English Teacher
Native Language
British English
Home Country
England
Current Location
England

Sneymarin

Member
Joined
Sep 26, 2019
Member Type
Student or Learner
Native Language
Moldavian
Home Country
Moldova
Current Location
Italy
I can't see anything wrong with it. Which part is concerning you?

The to-infinitive is fine, by the way, tedmc. It's part of an 'obligation' have to.
This part "... of his having actively to “take part in government?"
I don't understand why it's not grammatically wrong.
 

GoesStation

No Longer With Us (RIP)
Joined
Dec 22, 2015
Member Type
Interested in Language
Native Language
American English
Home Country
United States
Current Location
United States
This part "... of his having actively to “take part in government?"
I don't understand why it's not grammatically wrong.
You've found a great example of the kind of tortured sentence the silly old rule against split infinitives can lead to. Is this version clearer?

How can there be any question of his having to actively “take part in government"?
 

jutfrank

VIP Member
Joined
Mar 5, 2014
Member Type
English Teacher
Native Language
English
Home Country
England
Current Location
England
This part "... of his having actively to “take part in government?"
I don't understand why it's not grammatically wrong.

Help us out by telling us what appears to you to be ungrammatical.

Is it because the 'obligation' have to is in the gerund form?
 

Sneymarin

Member
Joined
Sep 26, 2019
Member Type
Student or Learner
Native Language
Moldavian
Home Country
Moldova
Current Location
Italy
You've found a great example of the kind of tortured sentence the silly old rule against split infinitives can lead to. Is this version clearer?

How can there be any question of his having to actively “take part in government"?

Yes, thank you for your help.
 

Sneymarin

Member
Joined
Sep 26, 2019
Member Type
Student or Learner
Native Language
Moldavian
Home Country
Moldova
Current Location
Italy
Help us out by telling us what appears to you to be ungrammatical.

Is it because the 'obligation' have to is in the gerund form?
It was the "having actively to" that confused me on which GoesStation has already clarified. I apologize for not pointing out what I couldn't understand better; I'll be clearer in my future posts. Thank you for your time and patience.
 

GoesStation

No Longer With Us (RIP)
Joined
Dec 22, 2015
Member Type
Interested in Language
Native Language
American English
Home Country
United States
Current Location
United States
It was the "having actively to" that confused me on which GoesStation has already clarified. I apologize for not pointing out what I couldn't understand better; I'll be clearer in my future posts. Thank you for your time and patience.
The lesson to take from this is to watch for adverbs before or after a to-infinitive in a sentence you can't understand. When you find one, mentally move it to immediately after the "to". That's where it naturally belongs (in most cases, anyway), but generations of careful writers avoided that location because a misguided 19th-century grammarian decreed that "split infinitives" were wrong.
 

jutfrank

VIP Member
Joined
Mar 5, 2014
Member Type
English Teacher
Native Language
English
Home Country
England
Current Location
England
generations of careful writers avoided that location because a misguided 19th-century grammarian decreed that "split infinitives" were wrong.

Is that actually true? Is there one person in particular to whom that can be attributed?
 

GoesStation

No Longer With Us (RIP)
Joined
Dec 22, 2015
Member Type
Interested in Language
Native Language
American English
Home Country
United States
Current Location
United States
Status
Not open for further replies.
Top