Subsequent negotiations won for Iran o 4 per cent tax ...

[pars]

Dear all:

What is the meaning of the words in bold in the following passage? It is from the book Anglo-Iranian relations since 1800, edited by Vanessa Martin, p. 6:

Vigorous remonstration by Reza Shah and Teimurtash in 1928 produced an offer of 20 per cent of shares of the Anglo-Persian Oil Company for Iran, as apposed to the 25 per cent that the Iranians sought, Subsequent negotiations won for Iran o 4 per cent tax on the profits levied on Iran.

Note: In that time the British government levied tax on the Iranian oil royalty. Does it mean that the tax was abolished?

Many thanks in advance.

 

[5jj]

won for Iran o 4 per cent tax

Please check the original text for those words.

 

[pars]

I'm so sorry. The original text is as follows:

...won for Iran a 4 per cent tax on the profits levied on Iran.

 

[SoothingDave]

Since it is framed as a win, then the rate must have been higher than 4% before.

 

[pars]

Since it is framed as a win, then the rate must have been higher than 4% before.

Dear Soothingdave:
Thanks very much, but the sentence is still ambiguous for me. Iran was attempting to abolish tax, because the Britain government had imposed tax on oil revenue, and after paying that tax, the Iranian share of profit was given to the government.

 

[SoothingDave]

Perhaps it means that Iran (meaning the government of Iran, I suppose) would now get part of the tax money that had previously gone only to the British government.

Say Britain taxed the oil companies at 20%. Now, the Britons get 16% and the Iranian government gets 4%.