[Grammar] the first person to infinitive

[KJOU]

Can I paraphrase "to win" into "winning, " which is a shorten form of "who won"?

He is the first person to win the prize.

He is the first person winning the prize.

Another question is if it is ok to use a past participle form after " the first person."


For example, He was the first woman permitted to work there. If this sentence should be right, what would be omitted before "permitted"?

 

[emsr2d2]

Can I [strike]paraphrase[/strike] change "to win" into "winning", which is a shortened form of "who won"?

He is the first person to win the prize. :tick:
He is the first person winning the prize. :cross:

[STRIKE]Another question[/STRIKE] Is [STRIKE]if[/STRIKE] it [STRIKE]is[/STRIKE] [STRIKE]ok[/STRIKE] OK/okay to use a past participle form after "the first person"?

For example, "[STRIKE]He[/STRIKE] She was the first woman permitted to work there". If this sentence [STRIKE]should be[/STRIKE] is right, what [STRIKE]would be[/STRIKE] has been omitted before "permitted"?

What makes you think that "winning" is a shortened form of "who won"? I don't understand where you've got that from.

With your second example sentence, a longer form would be "She was the first person who was permitted to work there".

 

[jutfrank]

This is a common pattern with superlatives:

the [superlative adjective] X to do something

the second man to walk on the moon
the oldest woman ever to have lived
the first person to be entered into the hall of fame

 

[KJOU]

I wrote this sentence. And the reason why I think that way is based on " He belongs to the group consisting of 5 people."

I think the sentence is equal to "He belongs to the group which consists of 5 people." Of course I wrote this sentence, too.

 

[KJOU]

Do you mean a past participle is okay, but a present participle is not okay, don't you?

Could I ask why?

 

[KJOU]

He belongs to the group consisting of 5 people. (o)

She was the first woman winning the prize. (x)

Those participle phrases are the same to me. Why is the first one right and second one wrong?

 

[5jj]

Do you mean a past participle is okay, but a present participle is not okay, don't you?

No. A to- infinitive is OK. An -ing form is not.

 

[5jj]

Those participle phrases are the same to me. Why is the first one right and second one wrong?

They are not the same. Your first sentence does not contain a superlative or ordinal form.

 

[KJOU]

Those are the reason why we should A to-infinitive because of a superlative or ordinal form, right?

 

[Tarheel]

You seem to be missing a verb.