The use of the present perfect

[constantinusphilo]

"My dear, you flatter me. I certainly have had my share of beauty, but I do not pretend to be anything extraordinary now.

This is a quotation from Pride and Prejudice by Jane Austin. The present perfect here refers to a completed action in the past whose results are no longer apparent. Is this an older usage? Would it be more proper to use past simple in modern English?

 

[GoesStation]

No. The present perfect is the appropriate tense today as it was in Austen's time. The sentence describes "… an action or state that … occurred at an indefinite time in the past" (grammarly.com).

 

[jutfrank]

The present perfect here refers to a completed action in the past

No, there's no action here. The main verb had is from the phrase have one's share of something. It's an idiomatic way of saying that she has been beautiful in the past.

Would it be more proper to use past simple in modern English?

No.

There's nothing old about this particular usage. It's an example of a very common use of the present perfect, which is for talking about life accomplishments and experiences.