Sped Tiger
Junior Member
- Joined
- Mar 1, 2023
- Member Type
- Student or Learner
- Native Language
- German
- Home Country
- Germany
- Current Location
- Germany
Could you say, please, whether we don't use that infinitive to at all and whether therefore I shouldn't use it at all. If that infinitive to is unnatural and very seldom used, then the 1st is not to be used, while the 2nd is natural.
1. The verb to have is an irregular verb (like to flee, to rend, to shend, and to saw). If you use to have in order to talk about the past, you use had. The past inflection of to have is always had and never haved.
2. The verb have is an irregular verb (like flee, rend, shend, and saw). If you use have in order to talk about the past, you use had. The past inflection of have is always had and never haved.
1. The verb to have is an irregular verb (like to flee, to rend, to shend, and to saw). If you use to have in order to talk about the past, you use had. The past inflection of to have is always had and never haved.
2. The verb have is an irregular verb (like flee, rend, shend, and saw). If you use have in order to talk about the past, you use had. The past inflection of have is always had and never haved.