to have learned vs had learned

[ostap77]

"She knew her son to have learned German."

OR

"She knew her son had learned German."

OR

"She knew that her son had learned German."

 

[riquecohen]

"She knew her son to have learned German."

OR

"She knew her son[STRIKE]e[/STRIKE] had learned German."

OR

"She knew that her son had learned German."

Only the 2nd and 3rd are correct. Watch out for typos.

 

[ostap77]

Only the 2nd and 3rd are correct. Watch out for typos.

What would be the problem with the first one?

 

[ostap77]

What would be the problem with the first one?

So the 1st one is incorrect?

 

[5jj]

So the 1st one is incorrect?

I have a feeling about this, but I need to check my grammars, so don't take it as certain.

My feeling is that we can use the present or perfect infinitive of BE ofter know + person, but not after other verbs. Thus the first two senetnces below are acceptable, the second too not.

1. I know him to be honest and sincere.
2. I know him to have been brave.
3. I know him to learn German.
4. I know him to have learnt German.

As I am re-reading those sentences, I am finding the second strange. I am now more inclining towards:

2a. I have known him to be brave.

I am going off to hunt through my grammars. I shall return to this thread to see what others think.

 

[ostap77]

I have a feeling about this, but I need to check my grammars, so don't take it as certain.

My feeling is that we can use the present or perfect infinitive of BE ofter know + person, but not after other verbs. Thus the first two senetnces below are acceptable, the second too not.

1. I know him to be honest and sincere.
2. I know him to have been brave.
3. I know him to learn German.
4. I know him to have learnt German.

As I am re-reading those sentences, I am finding the second strange. I am now more inclining towards:

2a. I have known him to be brave.

I am going off to hunt through my grammars. I shall return to this thread to see what others think.

I'd appreciate it.