Who "became mighty men"?

[Heartstrings]

I would like some help with some "Jacobean English". In the sentence below, who became mighty men? Was it the giants, the sons of God, or the children? Thanks

Genesis 6:4There were giants in the earth in those days; and also after that, when the sons of God came in unto the daughters of men, and they bare children to them, the same became mighty men which were of old, men of renown.

 

[virus99]

Not a teacher!

I think the children became mighty men. The giants and the sons of god were already mighty :mrgreen:. What does 'Jacobean English' mean?

 

[Heartstrings]

Not a teacher!

I think the children became mighty men. The giants and the sons of god were already mighty :mrgreen:. What does 'Jacobean English' mean?

King James

 

[konungursvia]

Wasn't it "bore?"

 

[Grumpy]

Not in the Authorised King James version of the Bible, from which this passage is taken. Perhaps it was the plural of "bore" in the 17th century...

 

[BobK]

...What does 'Jacobean English' mean?

Not in the Authorised King James version of the Bible, from which this passage is taken....

Latin for 'James' was Jacobus, so the phrase 'Jacobean English' makes sense. On the other hand, it's not a phrase I've met.

b

 

[Rover_KE]

Perhaps one of the other translations of the Bible listed here makes it clear (click on the underlined link).

Rover

 

[konungursvia]

Shakespeare studies, along with King James Bible courses, refer to Jacobean almost as often as Elizabethan. I believe one came right before the other, and both Shakespeare and that new Bible overlapped the two monarchs a little bit.

 

[Tdol]

It's used for the literature of the period.

 

[Grumpy]

King James VI of Scotland became James I of England on Queen Elizabeth I's death in 1603. He commissioned the new translation, which became known as the King James Bible, the following year. Shakespeare, on the other hand, did overlap both monarchs - and both were enthusiastic patrons of his works.

 

[Heartstrings]

Not in the Authorised King James version of the Bible, from which this passage is taken. Perhaps it was the plural of "bore" in the 17th century...

Interesting!
I looked it up and it seems that 'bore', in the King James Bible, means to drill a hole and 'bare' means to birth a child.

 

[Heartstrings]

Thanks guys,
I was looking for more insight on deciphering the grammar in the sentence. First of all, I noticed that these events all take place "in those days" so, I cannot see how "after that" could be referring to "later in time". The word "after" also can mean "subsequent to", "in consequence of", in imitation of", "in accordance with", or "in conformity to". The sentence makes a statement "there were giants in the earth in those days" followed by a semicolon(. Could it be that the existence of 'giants'(tall warriors such as the Maasai) was a contemporary but separate "circumstance" in which the part, following the semicolon, is a response to? And could it be that the response was to secure political alliances with other chieftains by marrying lots of wives which 'bare' great numbers of children, thereby multiplying their tribe/s into a political, economic, and military force to be reckoned with "in conformity to", "in accordance with and "In consequence of" the corrupted political, economic and military threats faced in their violent world?

The earth also was corrupt before God, and the earth was filled with violence. Genesis 6:11

 

[BobK]

It's used for the literature of the period.

But you hear 'Restoration Drama' (the reigns of the Jacobean kings marked the restoration of the monarchy) rather than 'Jacobean Drama'. I think.

b