[Grammar] “Have’’ or “has’’?

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Hello, everyone. I have a question to ask. Which of the following two sentences is grammatically correct?
A large quantity of books has been destroyed in the fire.
A large quantity of books have been destroyed in the fire.
Any reply would be appreciated.
 
I wouldn't use either. Try:

Many books were destroyed in the fire.
 
Hello, everyone. I have a question to ask. Which of the following two sentences is grammatically correct?
A large quantity of books has been destroyed in the fire.
A large quantity of books have been destroyed in the fire.
Any reply would be appreciated.
I'm a native speaker of English. I must confess, this question has puzzled me too for many years. I've seen both structures used by native speakers and I've heard arguments for and against both.

I don't know which one is technically correct. But in my opinion, you can use either one.
 
Which of the following two sentences is grammatically correct?
Both are grammatical. However, the real question is: which is more appropriate?

In my opinion, "have" is more appropriate in the above. This is because the focus is on books, not on quantity.

However, consider the following sentence:

A large quantity of books was/were taken into account when calculating the shipping cost.

In the above sentence, the focus is on quantity. Thus, the singular verb (needs) would be more appropriate.
 
Popular usage vs. correct grammar. Subject: "quantity"/Verb: "has".
 
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