[Grammar] without a "cives"

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sitifan

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GoesStation

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Setting the word in italics means it's foreign. Look up the Latin "cives".
 

GoesStation

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Except when it's the "genitive singular of cīvis". Look up "civis" in Latin.
 

sitifan

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Except when it's the "genitive singular of cīvis". Look up "civis" in Latin.

How is it possible to use a genitive case as the object of the preposition "without"?
 

GoesStation

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How is it possible to use a genitive case as the object of the preposition "without"?
It's a genitive in Latin. Foreign words are often adopted without regard to exactly how they're used in their own language.
 

jutfrank

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It's certainly far from clear, but as far as I understand, the writer means to contrast the modern notion of citizenry as it exists in liberal societies with the original model (based on the ancient Roman republican one). He's basically saying that precisely what was originally considered desirable about liberalism has come to be considered its major problem. That's what I get, anyway!

He uses cives as a singular noun. You can translate this into modern English with a similarly singular noun—citizenry. The fact that the word is plural in Latin is irrelevant.
 

SoothingDave

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I browsed through his introduction. I think he's trying to say that with increasing of what is "private" versus what is part of the "civic body," citizens increasingly have no "civic thing" that they belong to. And the election of legislators and president is largely for show as the real power is in bureaucracy, so there is disassociation of citizens from the people actually ruling.

But that's just my best guess.
 
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