a play of Shakespeare('s)

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joham

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Joined
Oct 30, 2007
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Student or Learner
Native Language
Chinese
Home Country
China
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China
That's a play of Shakespeare.
That's a play of Shakespeare's.

Does each sentence work as well as the other and have the same meaning?

Thank you in advance.
 
The first doesn't work particularly well for me- I would use by.
 
The second doesn't work particularly well for me - I would use "That's one of Shakespeare's plays."
 
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