I should have specified the pronoun 'him' and also my question more. I just felt a big diffence between the verb "stand" in English and the equivalent in my first language, but I could not figure out where it came from. But After Your wise answer for my stupid question, I could find it.
Thank you for your kindness and thoughtfulness.
According to what you taught me, I can guess "stand the boy" as a form of excluding "up", also implies some physical contact. So, if I say "I stood the boy on the chair for him to see the parade better" or "I stood the boy on the chair as a punishment", the both cases somehow imply a physical contact such as "hold his hand" or "drag him by his shoulder" (Am I going on the right way? )
If it is so, do the two following setences "I made him stood on the chair as a punishment" and "I got him to stood him on the chair as a punishemnt." not have that kind of directness or some physical contacts?
P.S : At first, before I read your advice, I guessed "stand someone" is used for a more undirect way, and "stand someone up" could be a more dircect way. In my first language it is an important element of transitive verbs which has their own signal in grammar. But to me English verbs seemed not to have that kind thing as a form of grammar, at least to me. But I thought Egnlish has it in its way. and it could be the prepostions accompnying verbs, I thought. But after follwing your comment I don't think so now, though I don't sure about it completely. Always confused.^^