Annabel Lee
Member
- Joined
- Feb 20, 2025
- Member Type
- English Teacher
- Native Language
- American English
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- United States
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- United States
Has anyone here heard of "perspective" being pronounced with the first syllable ("per") stressed? I haven't seen any dictionaries that mention that pronunciation. "Spec" is always the stressed syllable, isn't it? I have a hard time believing it was any different during Shakespeare's time. My question is motivated by the metrical challenge posed by the fourth line of Shakespeare's Sonnet #24:
I enjoy metrical analysis and found the fourth line particularly difficult to analyze as iambic pentameter. But I came up with an analysis I like, involving an additional unstressed syllable in the first foot (not uncommon) and (here's the key thing) a metrical pause, or omitted unstressed syllable (^), between "best" and "painter's." It is that part of my analysis that might be said to be daring, but I like it:
But then I looked at a couple of books I have on Shakespeare's sonnets, and they each put an accent mark on "per" -- with no discussion of the legitimacy of that move! I'm wondering whether there is any historical justification for that pronunciation or whether settling for a butchered pronunciation there was the only way the authors could think to save the iambic pentameter in that line:
What do you think?
Thank you.
Mine eye hath played the painter and hath stelled
Thy beauty's form in table of my heart;
My body is the frame wherein 'tis held,
And perspective it is best painter's art.
I enjoy metrical analysis and found the fourth line particularly difficult to analyze as iambic pentameter. But I came up with an analysis I like, involving an additional unstressed syllable in the first foot (not uncommon) and (here's the key thing) a metrical pause, or omitted unstressed syllable (^), between "best" and "painter's." It is that part of my analysis that might be said to be daring, but I like it:
and per SPEC | tive IT | is BEST | ^ PAIN | ter's ART
But then I looked at a couple of books I have on Shakespeare's sonnets, and they each put an accent mark on "per" -- with no discussion of the legitimacy of that move! I'm wondering whether there is any historical justification for that pronunciation or whether settling for a butchered pronunciation there was the only way the authors could think to save the iambic pentameter in that line:
and PER | spec TIVE | it IS | best PAIN | ter's ART
What do you think?
Thank you.