before certain people would help me

[azz]

a. I had to beg before some people would help me.
b. I had to beg before certain people would help me.

Do these imply that nobody helped me before I begged?

In (b) I have a specific set of people in mind. Can I use (a) instead of (b)?

What else could (a) mean?

 

[emsr2d2]

No. It's possible that other people helped you without your having to beg. We only know that you had to beg some/certain people for help. If you received no help at all before begging, you would have to say "I had to beg before anyone would help me".

 

[azz]

Thank you so much,

Can I use (a) instead of (b)? In other words, can I use (a) if I have a specific set of people in mind?

 

[Tdol]

I wouldn't.

 

[emsr2d2]

If you put particular stress on "some", I would say that you can.

 

[Tdol]

OK, but not a way that would work in written text unless you wrote about SOME people.