99bottles
Banned
- Joined
- Apr 11, 2018
- Member Type
- Interested in Language
- Native Language
- Greek
- Home Country
- Greece
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- Greece
No. Since God is capitalized, so is Goddess. Right?Is "Goddess" capitalized because it's somebody's name?
Then why, in all dictionaries, it is for goodness' sake instead of for goodness's sake?Behold the goddess's power.
No. The Christian deity (God) is capitalized, and it's the same in Judaism (G-d). As far as I know, that's it. (The Muslim deity is Allah.) So no, it's not capitalized unless it's somebody's name.No. Since God is capitalized, so is Goddess. Right?
You say it the same with or without the apostrophe. That's how it winds up in the dictionary that way. In print it's given the apostrophe to show possession, but it's pronounced the same either way.Then why, in all dictionaries, it is for goodness' sake instead of for goodness's sake?
But according to what you said, it should be goodness's.You say it the same with or without the apostrophe. That's how it winds up in the dictionary that way. In print it's given the apostrophe to show possession, but it's pronounced the same either way.
So, is for goodness' sake an exception?That's because I would pronounce the 's as an additional syllable. That would not be the case with goodness' .
But if the meaning is for the sake of goodness, shouldn't it be for goodness's sake? What does it matter if it has one more syllable?No. It's not an exception. As I already explained, that one only has an apostrophe at the end.
In Post#2, you say that Behold the goddess's power is the correct form. (Apostrophe followed by s.)You were bound to stump me sooner or later. I don't know why it matters. Frankly_ I'm not even sure I understand the question.