NAL123
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Do you mean there's nothing grammatically wrong with the sentence:I agree with Jutfrank. By converting the second two past tense verb phrases to participial phrases, the ideas are thereby subordinated, but all the ideas stand on the same level and so there is nothing for them to be subordinated to. Contrast:
By the age of twelve, he was 6 ft 2 in tall and by no means scrawny or effeminate, weighing 220 lb and having chest hair.
That depends on whether you include semantics in your concept of grammar in addition to syntax. I meant to imply that there is nothing syntactically wrong with your sentence, but there is something semantically wrong with it.Do you mean there's nothing grammatically wrong with the sentence:
By the age of twelve, he was 6 ft 2 in tall, weighing 220 lb, and having chest hair.
No, I meant just what I said. There is no apparent sense in which the ideas of weighing ever so many pounds and having chest hair are subordinate to the idea of being ever so many feet and inches tall. All those attributes are on the same level. But when you add a predicate such as I did, about being by no means scrawny or effeminate, all of a sudden the "weighing" and "having" predicates are subordinate. Weighing 220 lb is inconsistent with being scrawny, and having chest hair is inconsistent with being effeminate. Consider the opening of T. S. Eliot's The Waste Land:only that it doesn't sound as good as sentence (1) in the OP, or probably only sounds unidiomatic?
A slightly off-topic question: the bolded present participles above appear to be "dangling modifiers". Am I right?April is the cruellest month, breedingLilacs out of the dead land, mixingMemory and desire, stirringDull roots with spring rain.
I don't know what the situation is in the US, but the OP should note that in the UK the word "effeminate" is commonly seen as a derogatory term. It is rarely heard when referring to a man's behaviour or characteristics. The same is true of the word "camp" which has a crossover in meaning. I suspect that the main reason it's seen as derogatory is that it seems to connect looking/behaving like a woman with weakness. In the 21st century, the idea that men/women should be, look or behave in a certain way is outdated.... and having chest hair is inconsistent with being effeminate.
No, there's nothing ungrammatical, or even grammatically improper, about the first sentence of the most highly regarded twentieth-century poem in the English language. Eliot's participial phrases do not dangle. They are simply adverbial, and their implied subject is "April," just as "he" is clearly the implied subject of your participial phrases in the OP. Here's a paraphrase of Eliot's sentence: "By virtue of its breeding lilacs out of the deadland, mixing memory and desire, and stirring dull roots with spring rain, April is the cruelest month."A slightly off-topic question: the bolded present participles above appear to be "dangling modifiers".
My point is that the participial phrases, being adverbial syntactically, should have a semantic basis for being so, whether or not my quick attempt at rendering them so will be perceived by all parties viewing the post as impeccable and polically correct.I don't know what the situation is in the US, but the OP should note that in the UK the word "effeminate" is commonly seen as a derogatory term. It is rarely heard when referring to a man's behaviour or characteristics. The same is true of the word "camp" which has a crossover in meaning. I suspect that the main reason it's seen as derogatory is that it seems to connect looking/behaving like a woman with weakness. In the 21st century, the idea that men/women should be, look or behave in a certain way, is outdated.
For what it's worth, I disagree with Annabel Lee's statement that the two are inconsistent. Whilst the word does refer to physical characteristics (an example I found online included having small delicate hands), it is/was more often used to refer to behaviour. Having or not having chest hair has absolutely no bearing on someone's behaviour.
I don't think anyone has suggested that they are not.my quick attempt at rendering them so will be perceived by all parties viewing the post as impeccable and polically correct.
It is.This sentence in my post #4 is ok, right?
As the first word of a sentence, write "OK" or "Okay". Anywhere else in a sentence, write "OK" or "okay". Just remember that "ok" is always incorrect.This sentence in my post #4 isokOK/okay, right?
The participial phrase works differently there, in my opinion, from how the participial phrase works in your example in the OP. I'm inclined to parse the one here as a nonrestrictive participial relative clause related to "a veterinarian," such that it could be paraphrased like this: "I am a veterinarian, who primarily treats monkeys with skin diseases."I am a veterinarian, primarily treating monkeys with skin diseases.
Here's the OP example again (the second one, that is). Notice that there is no noun phrase preceding the coordinated participial phrases. Instead we have the predicate "was 6 ft 2 in tall." There being no noun for it to modify, there is no sense in which "weighting 220 lb, and having chest hair" can sensibly be analyzed as a participial relative clause.Can I write it as follows?
By the age of twelve, he was 6 ft 2 in tall, weighing 220 lb, and having chest hair.
Maybe there is room for an adjectival analysis. Maybe we can, after all, treat the participial phrases as backgrounded (and extraposed -- shifted to the end of the sentence) nonrestrictive participial relative clauses related to "he." Does that analysis work for anyone as an alternative?
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