By the time I've paid off your mortgage, I'll have given the bank 1.6 times the money you borrowed.

[Tony_M]

Hello.

A: I want to buy my own house. I'm thinking about taking out a mortgage.
B: Are you joking, man? The interest rate is exorbitant. By the time you've paid off your mortgage, you'll have given the bank 1.6 times the money you borrowed.

Are the tenses in the last sentence correct? Does it sound natural to you?

Edit: typos

Thank you.

 

[Rover_KE]

What’s the source of the quoted text?

Why does B think he’ll have to pay off A’s mortgage?

 

[Tony_M]

What’s the source of the quoted text?

Why does B think he’ll have to pay off A’s mortgage?

The dialogue is mine. I've corrected the typos.

 

[jutfrank]

What are you trying to do? Practise the future perfect? If so, good job. The other tenses are all good. Well done.

 

[Tony_M]

What are you trying to do?

Sorry, I didn't get the question.

 

[jutfrank]

Sorry, I didn't get the question.

I was asking what the purpose of writing this was. What was your objective? To practise using the future perfect?

 

[Tony_M]

What was your objective? To practise using the future perfect?

Probably.

 

[EngLearner]

By the time you pay off your mortgage, you'll have given the bank 1.6 times the amount you borrowed.

We can also say it like this, with the simple present in the "by the time" clause. Is there any reason to prefer the version with "you pay off" to the one with "you've paid off", or is it just two ways of saying the same thing? Are they equally idiomatic?

 

[jutfrank]

We can also say it like this, with the simple present in the "by the time" clause.

That's correct.

Is there any reason to prefer the version with "you pay off" to the one with "you've paid off", or is it just two ways of saying the same thing?

They differ by aspect. The latter has perfect aspect whereas the former lacks aspect. Therefore, a reason to prefer the latter is that you wnt to cast a perfect aspect. Are they saying the same thing? I'm not sure what you mean by 'saying the same thing', but to me the difference in aspect necessarily means that that the latter is saying more than the former. There's no pragmatic difference.

Are they equally idiomatic?

Can you explain what you mean by 'idiomatic'? I personally wouldn't count either as idiomatic.

 

[EngLearner]

Can you explain what you mean by 'idiomatic'? I personally wouldn't count either as idiomatic.

Natural-sounding, something that native English speakers would say in the context given, etc.

 

[jutfrank]

You mean 'natural' then. Yes, they're both perfectly natural.

 

[EngLearner]

How would you define "idiomatic" then? I thought it was synonymous with "natural."

 

[jutfrank]

How would you define "idiomatic" then?

Something like 'non-literal' or non-obvious, where the total meaning of a phrase is not composed from the parts.

I thought it was synonymous with "natural."

It often means that to those outside teaching/linguistics. I'd prefer you used 'natural' if it's all the same to you. Anyway, you don't have to ask us whether something sounds natural. Just focus on finding the best way to express what you mean in the particular register that you're in. What people find natural varies across individuals, varieties, class, culture, etc.

 

[emsr2d2]

I was asking what the purpose of writing this was. What was your objective? To practise using the future perfect?

Probably.

That doesn't make sense! Only you know what your purpose of writing your text was so "Probably" is a very odd answer!

 

[Tarheel]

Hello.

A: I want to buy A house. I'm thinking about taking out a mortgage.
B: Are you joking, man? The interest rate is exorbitant. By the time you've paid off your mortgage, you'll have given the bank 1.6 times the money you borrowed.

Are the tenses in the last sentence correct? Does it sound natural to you?

Edit: typos

[.............]

Most of us would assume that if you're going to buy a house it's going to be yours. If you buy a house you will be the owner. It will be your house.

 

[emsr2d2]

Most of us would assume that if you're going to buy a house it's going to be yours. If you buy a house you will be the owner. It will be your house.

Of course it's going to be yours once you've paid off the mortgage. That doesn't make any difference to the question being asked. The final sentence, which is the one in question, is grammatical and, as long as the speaker's calculations are correct, factually correct.